A nurse is reviewing the health history of a client diagnosed with angina pectoris and has a prescription for propranolol hydrochloride PO 40 mg twice daily. Which of the following findings in the client's health history should the nurse report to the provider?
The client has a history of bronchial asthma.
The client has a history of migraine headaches.
The client has a history of hypertension.
The client has a history of hypothyroidism.
The Correct Answer is A
A. The client has a history of bronchial asthma: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker and can potentially exacerbate bronchospasm in individuals with asthma due to its beta-blocking effects on beta-2 receptors in the bronchioles. Therefore, this finding should be reported to the provider for further assessment and consideration of alternative medications.
B. The client has a history of migraine headaches: Propranolol is commonly used prophylactically to prevent migraine headaches, so this finding is not a contraindication for its use and does not require immediate reporting to the provider.
C. The client has a history of hypertension: Propranolol is often prescribed for hypertension, so this finding is expected and not a cause for concern.
D. The client has a history of hypothyroidism: While propranolol can affect thyroid function tests, a history of hypothyroidism alone is not a contraindication for its use, and it does not
require immediate reporting to the provider. However, thyroid function should be monitored during therapy.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Client develops petechiae on the arms, legs, and abdomen: Petechiae can indicate thrombocytopenia, which may be a complication of heparin therapy but is not an urgent concern unless severe or associated with bleeding.
B. Health care provider orders Coumadin 2.5 mg P.O. to begin today: Coumadin (warfarin) is often initiated as a bridge therapy or overlap with heparin therapy in pulmonary embolism management. This order is not necessarily inappropriate and may be part of the treatment plan.
C. Client develops slight ecchymosis at the venipuncture site: Ecchymosis at the venipuncture site can occur due to minor trauma during the insertion of IV lines or blood draws and is not necessarily indicative of a complication requiring immediate notification of the healthcare provider.
D. Client's partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is 70 seconds and the control is 25-40 seconds: A significantly elevated PTT indicates a potential overdose of heparin, putting the client at risk of bleeding complications. This finding warrants immediate notification of the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of heparin therapy.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Check an apical pulse: Digoxin is known to cause toxicity, which can manifest as nausea, weakness, and anorexia. Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse's first action should be to assess the client's apical pulse rate to determine if there are any signs of bradycardia, which could indicate digoxin toxicity.
B. Request a dietitian consult: While nutrition is important, the client's symptoms of nausea and weakness need immediate attention to rule out digoxin toxicity before considering dietary interventions.
C. Request an order for an antiemetic: Administering an antiemetic may be indicated if the client is experiencing nausea, but it's crucial to assess for digoxin toxicity first, as antiemetics may mask symptoms of toxicity.
D. Suggest that the client rests before eating the meal: Rest may be beneficial for the client, but addressing the potential cause of the symptoms, such as digoxin toxicity, takes priority
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