A nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who has hypertension and diabetes mellitus. The client reports experiencing a dry cough for several weeks. The nurse should identify that this adverse reaction is most likely caused by which of the following medications?
Lisinopril
Metformin
Atenolol
Glipizide
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale: Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor that can cause a dry, persistent cough as a common adverse reaction. The cough is due to the accumulation of bradykinin, which is a vasodilator and an inflammatory mediator that is normally degraded by ACE. The cough usually resolves after discontinuing the medication.
B) is incorrect because metformin is an antidiabetic agent that does not cause a cough as an adverse reaction. The most common adverse reactions of metformin are gastrointestinal disturbances, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal pain.
C) is incorrect because atenolol is a beta blocker that does not cause a cough as an adverse reaction. The most common adverse reactions of atenolol are bradycardia, hypotension, fatigue, and dizziness.
D) is incorrect because glipizide is a sulfonylurea that does not cause a cough as an adverse reaction. The most common adverse reactions of glipizide are hypoglycemia, weight gain, and skin rash.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Correct answer: Option D. Previous exposure to a medication is a significant risk factor for developing an allergic reaction. Sensitization to a particular medication can occur after the initial exposure, leading to an allergic response upon subsequent use.
Incorrect choices:
Option A: Age and gender are not direct risk factors for developing allergic reactions to medications.
Option B: Body weight is not directly related to the risk of allergic reactions to medications.
Option C: Dietary preferences may affect other aspects of health but are not directly associated with the risk of allergic reactions to medications.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, which is an anticoagulant. NSAIDs inhibit platelet aggregation and interfere with warfarin metabolism, leading to increased levels of warfarin and prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR).
A) is incorrect because acetaminophen is an analgesic and antipyretic that does not affect platelet function or warfarin metabolism. However, high doses or chronic use of acetaminophen can increase INR and cause liver toxicity, so the nurse should advise the client to limit acetaminophen intake and monitor liver function tests.
C) is incorrect because loratadine is an antihistamine that does not interact with warfarin or affect bleeding. Loratadine can be used safely by clients who have allergies and are taking warfarin.
D) is incorrect because calcium carbonate is an antacid and a calcium supplement that does not interact with warfarin or affect bleeding. However, calcium carbonate can interfere with the absorption of other medications, so the nurse should instruct the client to take it at least 2 hours before or after other medications.
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