A nurse is scheduling an older client for a surgical clearance appointment. Which intervention is best to reduce the risk of drug interactions for the client?

Request that the client brings all current medications and supplements to the appointment.

Create a medication schedule for the client instructing when to take each medication.

Instruct the client to avoid taking over-the-counter (OTC) medications.

Teach the client to have prescriptions filled at the pharmacy closest to home.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Reviewing all current medications and supplements allows the healthcare team to identify potential drug interactions and adjust treatment.

B. While a medication schedule is helpful, it does not address the risk of interactions during pre-surgical planning.

C. Instructing the client to avoid OTC medications is overly broad and may lead to unnecessary medication omission.

D. Filling prescriptions locally does not address the risk of interactions directly.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Checking the surgical dressing is important but not as urgent as ensuring respiratory function.

B. Assessing urinary output is necessary but secondary to airway patency.

C. Monitoring blood pressure and blood loss is important but less critical than respiratory status.

D. Airway patency is the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period to prevent respiratory failure.

A. Blood pressure of 120/84 mm Hg B. Hypoactive bowel sounds. C. Respiratory rate of 9 breaths per minute. D. Urine output 90 mL over the last 2 hours.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. A blood pressure of 120/84 mm Hg is within normal limits and does not require immediate intervention.

B. Hypoactive bowel sounds are a common side effect of sedation and not an immediate concern.

C. A respiratory rate of 9 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, which is a life-threatening side effect of Propofol. Immediate intervention is required to maintain oxygenation.

D. Urine output of 90 mL over 2 hours is adequate and does not indicate acute distress.

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A nurse is scheduling an older client for a surgical clearance appointment. Which intervention is best to reduce the risk of drug interactions for the client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which is the priority intervention for the nurse to perform in the post anesthesia care unit (PACU)?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client receiving Propofol for sedation during a medical procedure. Which assessment finding should the nurse prioritize when monitoring the client's response to Propofol?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Exhibits A client is brought to post anesthesia care unit (PACU) after an invasive procedure. Based on the two sets of vital signs in the chart tab, which action is most appropriate by the nurse?

A nurse is caring for a client receiving fentanyl. On assessment, the client's respiratory rate is 8 breaths per minute. Which medication is appropriate at this time?

The nurse is caring for a client in the immediate post-operative period. On assessment, the nurse notes the client's bowels are protruding from the abdominal incision. Which intervention(s) by the nurse are most appropriate at this time? (Select All That Apply]

During a pre-surgical admission assessment, a client states. "I've told my surgeon that I am Jehovah's Witness and I won't accept a blood transfusion." Which statement by the nurse would be most appropriate?

A preoperative nurse is assessing a client prior to surgery. Which information would be most important for the nurse to relay to the surgical team?

The nurse is preparing to transfer a client from the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU). Which assessment findings would delay the transfer of the client? (Select All that Apply.)

A nurse is caring for several clients in the post-operative unit. Which client should the nurse see first?

A client is receiving diazepam prior to a procedure. Which side effect should the nurse be most concerned about?