A nurse is screening clients for adrenal insufficiency. The nurse recognizes that which client is at greatest risk for adrenal insufficiency?
A 19-year-old male on low dose steroids for a week
A 35-year-old female who completed 3 weeks of steroids.
An 80-year-old female who takes steroids daily.
A 45-year old male with COPD who uses intermittent steroids.
The Correct Answer is C
A. A short-term, low-dose steroid use (one week) has minimal risk for adrenal suppression.
B. Three weeks of steroids increases risk, but daily use presents a higher risk.
C. Prolonged daily steroid use, especially in an older adult, poses the greatest risk for adrenal insufficiency due to suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis.
D. Intermittent steroid use is less likely to cause adrenal insufficiency compared to daily long-term use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A short-term, low-dose steroid use (one week) has minimal risk for adrenal suppression.
B. Three weeks of steroids increases risk, but daily use presents a higher risk.
C. Prolonged daily steroid use, especially in an older adult, poses the greatest risk for adrenal insufficiency due to suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis.
D. Intermittent steroid use is less likely to cause adrenal insufficiency compared to daily long-term use.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Turning the client onto their operative side could increase pressure on the eye and is not an appropriate first action.
B. Administering prescribed pain medication and antiemetic is essential to address the client's severe pain and nausea, which are priority concerns in the postoperative period.
C. While it may be necessary to notify the surgeon if symptoms persist, the immediate priority is to alleviate the client's discomfort.
D. Reassuring the client that these symptoms are normal is misleading; severe pain and nausea postoperatively should be addressed promptly.
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