A nurse is screening clients for adrenal insufficiency. The nurse recognizes that which client is at greatest risk for adrenal insufficiency?

A 19-year-old male on low dose steroids for a week

A 35-year-old female who completed 3 weeks of steroids.

An 80-year-old female who takes steroids daily.

A 45-year old male with COPD who uses intermittent steroids.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. A short-term, low-dose steroid use (one week) has minimal risk for adrenal suppression.
B. Three weeks of steroids increases risk, but daily use presents a higher risk.
C. Prolonged daily steroid use, especially in an older adult, poses the greatest risk for adrenal insufficiency due to suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis.
D. Intermittent steroid use is less likely to cause adrenal insufficiency compared to daily long-term use.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. In SIADH, excess ADH causes water retention and hyponatremia; fluid restriction helps to prevent further dilution of sodium and manage fluid balance.
B. NPO status is unnecessary unless otherwise indicated; managing fluid intake is more effective.
C. Increasing oral intake would worsen fluid overload and hyponatremia.
D. Rapid IV fluid infusion can exacerbate the client’s condition by increasing fluid volume further.

A. Obtain hourly glucose levels B. Prepare client for a CT scan C. Request order for serum calcium levels D. Monitor Blood Pressure

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Monitoring glucose levels may be necessary, as pheochromocytoma can cause hyperglycemia, but it is not the immediate priority.
B. A CT scan may be part of the diagnostic process to locate the adrenal tumor, but the priority is to control blood pressure first due to the risk of severe hypertensive crisis.
C. Serum calcium levels are not directly related to pheochromocytoma and are not a priority action.
D. Monitoring blood pressure is critical, as pheochromocytoma causes episodes of severe hypertension, which can lead to life-threatening complications.

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A nurse is screening clients for adrenal insufficiency. The nurse recognizes that which client is at greatest risk for adrenal insufficiency?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client is admitted for treatment of the Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH). The nurse should initiate which of the following interventions?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client with suspected pheochromocytoma. The nurse recognizes that which of the following is the priority action?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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