A nurse is teaching a class about the transition from novice to expert nurse.
The nurse should include that a nurse who is a preceptor to new staff members is at which of the following stages?
Advanced beginner.
Proficient.
Expert.
Competent.
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is Choice B.
Choice A rationale: Advanced beginners are newly graduated nurses who rely on limited experience and follow guidelines strictly. They cannot yet mentor others effectively because they lack the necessary comprehensive knowledge and practical skills for precepting new staff members.
Choice B rationale: Proficient nurses have a deep understanding of clinical situations through experience. They can recognize patterns, predict outcomes, and provide effective mentorship as preceptors. They are skilled at guiding new staff members and improving their clinical performance.
Choice C rationale: Expert nurses possess an intuitive grasp of clinical situations and make decisions rapidly. While they are highly skilled, the role of preceptor is generally better suited to proficient nurses who are adept at breaking down complex tasks for new learners.
Choice D rationale: Competent nurses have a few years of practice and can plan and manage patient care efficiently. However, they are not yet at the stage where they can fluidly adapt to varying situations or mentor new staff as effectively as proficient nurses.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice B: A client who has a family history of breast cancer is scheduled for a mammogram.
Choice A rationale:
Receiving an influenza vaccination is an example of primary prevention, which aims to prevent the onset of disease.
Choice B rationale:
Scheduling a mammogram for a client with a family history of breast cancer is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves the early detection and treatment of disease to reduce the impact of the disease. Mammograms help in the early detection of breast cancer, which can significantly improve treatment outcomes.
Choice C rationale:
Not scheduling tests for an asymptomatic client does not relate to secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves screening and early detection of diseases in at-risk populations.
Choice D rationale:
Scheduling an echocardiogram for a client with heart failure is an example of tertiary prevention. Tertiary prevention aims to reduce the impact of an ongoing illness or injury that has lasting effects by helping patients manage long-term, complex health problems.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A heart rate of 56 beats per minute is within the normal range for an adult, so a high temperature of 39°C (102.2°F) is not directly related to the heart rate. While elevated body temperature can increase heart rate, the given temperature does not indicate a significant fever.
Choice B rationale:
History of cigarette smoking may be a risk factor for cardiovascular issues, but it does not directly correlate with the current heart rate of 56 beats per minute. The low heart rate is more likely related to other factors.
Choice C rationale:
A heart rate of 56 beats per minute is considered bradycardia, which can lead to dizziness, fatigue, and other symptoms. Dizziness is a common finding in individuals with a slow heart rate, and addressing this symptom is essential for patient safety.
Choice D rationale:
Hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) can cause symptoms like dizziness, but the heart rate is not typically affected directly by hypoglycemia. It is important to address both the bradycardia and the reported dizziness to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate care.
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