A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of aplastic anemia. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Aplastic anemia results in an inability to absorb vitamin B12.
Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs.
Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction.
Aplastic anemia is associated with a decreased intake of iron.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Aplastic anemia results in an inability to absorb vitamin B12: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not related to the absorption of vitamin B12. It primarily involves a decrease in the production of blood cells by the bone marrow.
B. Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs: This is the correct information. Aplastic anemia is a condition characterized by the failure of the bone marrow to produce an adequate number of blood cells, including red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets.
C. Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not associated with an increased rate of RBC destruction. Instead, it is characterized by a reduction in the number of blood cells produced by the bone marrow.
D. Aplastic anemia is associated with a decreased intake of iron: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not related to a decreased intake of iron. It is primarily a disorder of bone marrow function leading to insufficient production of blood cells.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administer enteric-coated acetaminophen: Acetaminophen is not typically used to address the symptoms described by the client, such as pain in the jaw, back, and shoulder, shortness of breath, and nausea. Moreover, an enteric-coated form of acetaminophen is not likely to address the acute symptoms.
B. Administer ibuprofen: Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) and may not be appropriate for the reported symptoms, especially if they are indicative of a cardiac event.
C. Obtain an EKG: This is the correct answer. The client's symptoms, including pain in the jaw, back, and shoulder, shortness of breath, and nausea, are concerning for a possible cardiac event, such as a myocardial infarction (heart attack). An electrocardiogram (EKG) is a crucial diagnostic tool to assess for cardiac abnormalities and should be done promptly.
D. Maintain oxygen saturations greater than or equal to 92%: While maintaining adequate oxygen saturation is important in various clinical situations, the client's symptoms, especially when associated with potential cardiac issues, warrant an immediate EKG to assess for cardiac abnormalities.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Remove the catheter: Removing the catheter may not be the immediate priority. The nurse should focus on preventing further air entry into the circulation and addressing the symptoms.
B. Replace the infusion system: While ensuring that the infusion system is intact is important, it is not the primary action needed to manage an air embolism.
C. Prepare for chest tube insertion: Chest tube insertion is not the primary intervention for an air embolism. The focus should be on preventing the progression of the embolism and providing supportive care.
D. Place the client on his left side in Trendelenburg position: This is the correct answer. Placing the client on the left side in Trendelenburg position is a maneuver used to trap air in the right atrium, preventing it from traveling to the pulmonary artery. The left side position helps to prevent the air from traveling to the right ventricle and into the pulmonary artery, reducing the risk of further complications.
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