A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of aplastic anemia. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Aplastic anemia results in an inability to absorb vitamin B12.
Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs.
Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction.
Aplastic anemia is associated with a decreased intake of iron.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Aplastic anemia results in an inability to absorb vitamin B12: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not related to the absorption of vitamin B12. It primarily involves a decrease in the production of blood cells by the bone marrow.
B. Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs: This is the correct information. Aplastic anemia is a condition characterized by the failure of the bone marrow to produce an adequate number of blood cells, including red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), and platelets.
C. Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not associated with an increased rate of RBC destruction. Instead, it is characterized by a reduction in the number of blood cells produced by the bone marrow.
D. Aplastic anemia is associated with a decreased intake of iron: This statement is incorrect. Aplastic anemia is not related to a decreased intake of iron. It is primarily a disorder of bone marrow function leading to insufficient production of blood cells.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E","F"]
Explanation
A. Disorientation:
This may indicate a neurological or cognitive issue and requires further assessment.
B. Barrel-shaped chest:
This is a characteristic finding in COPD, but any change or worsening may need evaluation.
C. Yellow sputum:
Yellow or greenish sputum may indicate an infection, and follow-up is needed.
D. Nebulizer use:
Nebulizer use is part of the prescribed treatment.
E. Ankle edema:
Edema can be a sign of heart failure or other cardiovascular issues and should be investigated.
F. SaO2 92%:
Oxygen saturation of 92% is below the normal range. It may indicate respiratory compromise and needs attention.
G. Clubbing of fingers:
While clubbing can be associated with chronic respiratory conditions, it is not an immediate concern.
H. Lives alone:
Living alone may impact the client's support system but does not require immediate medical attention.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Aortic regurgitation: Aortic regurgitation typically presents with a diastolic murmur, not a systolic click.
B. Mitral stenosis: Mitral stenosis presents with a diastolic murmur, often associated with an opening snap, rather than a systolic click.
C. Aortic stenosis: Aortic stenosis typically presents with a systolic ejection murmur, but not a systolic click.
D. Mitral valve prolapse: This is the correct answer. Mitral valve prolapse (MVP) is characterized by the displacement of the mitral valve leaflets into the left atrium during systole, often producing a systolic click. Symptoms associated with MVP can include atypical chest pain, palpitations, and exercise intolerance.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.