A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving terbutaline for pre-term labor.
Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a potential adverse effect of the medication?
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Hyperglycemia
Hypokalemia
The Correct Answer is D
Terbutaline can cause low potassium levels in the blood, which can lead to muscle weakness, cramps, and cardiac arrhythmias.
This is a potential adverse effect of the medication that should be reported to the provider.
Choice A is wrong because tachycardia is a common side effect of terbutaline that does not usually require medical attention.
Terbutaline works by stimulating beta-adrenergic receptors, which can increase the heart rate.
Choice B is wrong because hypotension is not a typical side effect of terbutaline. Terbutaline can actually cause elevated blood pressure in some cases.
Choice C is wrong because hyperglycemia is not a common side effect of terbutaline. Terbutaline can cause transient hyperglycemia in pregnant women, but this is not a reason to stop the medication.
Normal ranges for potassium are 3.5-5.0 mEq/L and for blood glucose are 70-110 mg/dL.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Infection on speculum examination.
Infection is a major cause of preterm labor and can lead to serious complications for the mother and the fetus.
Infection can be detected by a speculum examination that shows signs of inflammation, such as erythema, edema, discharge, or odor.
Infection can also be confirmed by laboratory tests, such as culture, gram stain, or polymerase chain reaction.Infection should be treated promptly with antibiotics and other supportive measures.
Choice B. Bleeding on speculum examination is wrong because bleeding is not a direct cause of preterm labor, but rather a sign of other conditions that may increase the risk of preterm labor, such as placenta previa, placental abruption, or cervical trauma.Bleeding should be evaluated further to determine the source and severity of the hemorrhage and to manage any complications.
Choice C. Positive fetal fibronectin test (FFN) is wrong because a positive FFN test indicates the presence of fetal fibronectin in the cervical or vaginal secretions, which is a marker of increased risk of preterm labor, but not a definitive marker.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Regular uterine contractions occurring every 15 minutes.
This finding suggests that the client may have placental abruption, which is a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention.Placental abruption is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause heavy bleeding, pain, and fetal distress.
Choice B is wrong because low back pain and pelvic pressure are common symptoms of preterm labor, which is not as urgent as placental abruption.
Choice C is wrong because a change in vaginal discharge is not a specific sign of any complication and may be normal in pregnancy.
Choice D is wrong because rupture of membranes is not a priority finding in this case, unless it is associated with infection or cord prolapse.
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