A nurse is teaching a client who is to start using a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

"I will leave the diaphragm in place for 4 hours following intercourse.”

"I will remove the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with my forefinger.”

"I will place a thin layer of mineral oil on the diaphragm once per week.”

"I will place 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before inserting it.”

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale:

Leaving the diaphragm in place for 4 hours following intercourse is incorrect. The diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy.

Choice B rationale:

Removing the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with the forefinger is incorrect. The diaphragm should be removed by hooking the finger behind the rim to avoid damaging the dome and ensure proper removal.

Choice C rationale:

Placing a thin layer of mineral oil on the diaphragm once per week is incorrect. Mineral oil can weaken latex diaphragms, reducing their effectiveness. Water-based lubricants are recommended for use with diaphragms.

Choice D rationale:

Placing 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before insertion is the correct technique. Spermicide helps to immobilize and kill sperm, enhancing the contraceptive effect of the diaphragm.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Cesarean birth is a factor strongly associated with postpartum deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) After a cesarean section, the risk of developing DVT increases due to reduced mobility and potential trauma to blood vessels during the surgery. Decreased mobility can lead to blood stasis, increasing the risk of clot formation.

Choice B rationale:

Rheumatoid arthritis (Choice B) is not directly associated with an increased risk of postpartum DVT. Other autoimmune disorders, such as antiphospholipid syndrome, may be associated with a higher risk of DVT, but rheumatoid arthritis itself is not a known risk factor.

Choice C rationale:

Hypotension (Choice C) is not directly linked to an increased risk of postpartum DVT. However, hypotension can be associated with other complications and should be managed appropriately.

Choice D rationale:

Uterine atony (Choice D) is excessive bleeding following childbirth due to the uterus not contracting adequately. While it is a postpartum complication, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of DVT.

A. Encourage the mother to breastfeed the newborn. B. Gavage feed 60 mL (2 oz) of glucose water. C. Administer 10 mL of D5W via IV. D. Recheck the glucose level in 2 hr.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason:

Breastfeeding is the recommended first line of action for a newborn with a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL, which is on the lower end of the normal range (normal range: 40-60 mg/dL for a newborn). Breast milk provides a natural source of glucose and other nutrients essential for the newborn's growth and development. It also facilitates bonding and has immunological benefits. Early initiation of breastfeeding helps to stabilize the blood glucose levels naturally.

Choice B reason:

Gavage feeding 60 mL of glucose water is not the first choice for managing borderline low blood glucose levels in a newborn. This method is typically reserved for infants who cannot feed orally due to medical conditions or prematurity. It is an invasive procedure and can be stressful for the newborn.

Choice C reason:

Administering 10 mL of D5W (5% dextrose in water) via IV is a treatment for hypoglycemia (low blood glucose levels), not for borderline low levels like 40 mg/dL. This intervention is usually considered when blood glucose levels are significantly lower than the normal range and the infant is symptomatic or unable to tolerate oral feedings.

Choice D reason:

Rechecking the glucose level in 2 hours is a passive approach and may not be appropriate for a newborn with a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL. Immediate action, such as feeding, is preferred to prevent potential hypoglycemia and its associated risks.

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A nurse is teaching a client who is to start using a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A postpartum complication a client is at risk for is deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following is a factor strongly associated with this postpartum complication?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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