A nurse is teaching the parents of a newborn about the critical congenital heart disease screening.
Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
The test will be performed when your newborn is between 6 and 12 hours of age.
It will take 1 to 2 weeks to obtain the results of your newborn's test.
The test compares the oxygen saturation in your newborn's upper and lower extremities.
To perform the test, I will collect a blood sample from your newborn's heel.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
The critical congenital heart disease (CCHD) screening is typically performed when the newborn is between 24 and 48 hours of age, or just prior to discharge if that occurs earlier. Performing the test too early, such as between 6 and 12 hours, might yield false negative results due to the persistence of transitional circulation.
Choice B rationale
The results of the CCHD screening are typically available immediately, or within a few minutes, as it involves pulse oximetry readings. There is no waiting period of 1 to 2 weeks for the results, allowing for prompt identification and management of potential cardiac defects, preventing delays in care.
Choice C rationale
The CCHD screening specifically compares the oxygen saturation in the newborn's right hand (pre-ductal) and either foot (post-ductal). A significant difference between these two readings can indicate a shunt or obstruction within the heart or great vessels, suggesting a potential critical congenital heart defect.
Choice D rationale
Collecting a blood sample from the newborn's heel is the procedure for the newborn metabolic screening, which screens for various genetic and metabolic disorders, not the critical congenital heart disease screening. The CCHD screening is a non-invasive test performed using pulse oximetry.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
Explanation
The client is at risk for developing HELLP syndrome as evidenced by Liver enzymes.
Rationale for correct answers:
HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets) is a severe form of preeclampsia often presenting in the third trimester. This client has thrombocytopenia (platelets 100,000/mm³; normal 150,000–400,000/mm³), elevated blood urea nitrogen (25 mg/dL; normal 10–20 mg/dL), borderline elevated creatinine (1.1 mg/dL; normal 0.5–1.0 mg/dL), and elevated uric acid (9.8 mg/dL; normal 2.7–7.3 mg/dL), which suggests possible renal impairment and oxidative stress typical in HELLP. Mild epigastric discomfort also aligns with liver involvement. Although liver enzymes are not listed in the labs here, the question implies liver enzyme elevation as a hallmark finding to confirm HELLP, which is essential to monitor. Hemolysis would typically manifest as anemia, but hemoglobin and hematocrit are near normal. Prompt recognition and further testing of liver enzymes (AST, ALT) are critical for diagnosis and management.
Rationale for incorrect Response 1 options:
Chorioamnionitis is an infection of the amniotic sac, usually presenting with fever, uterine tenderness, and elevated WBC, which are not present here. Gestational diabetes is characterized by hyperglycemia, but the client’s blood glucose is only mildly elevated and not diagnostic. Pyelonephritis involves urinary tract infection with systemic symptoms like fever and flank pain, absent in this case.
Rationale for incorrect Response 2 options:
Amniotic membrane status is unrelated here, as there is no rupture or infection evidence. Ketonuria reflects starvation or diabetes, which is not indicated. Blood glucose is only mildly elevated and insufficient to diagnose gestational diabetes or explain current symptoms.
Take home points:
- HELLP syndrome involves low platelets, elevated liver enzymes, and hemolysis, often with epigastric pain.
- Early lab monitoring including liver enzymes is vital for timely diagnosis.
- Elevated BUN, creatinine, and uric acid can signal renal impairment in HELLP.
- Differentiate HELLP from infections or gestational diabetes by clinical presentation and specific labs.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Polyuria, an abnormally large production of urine, is not a typical adverse effect of epidural analgesia. Epidural analgesia, due to its influence on sympathetic nervous system blockade, can sometimes lead to urinary retention by inhibiting bladder detrusor muscle contraction and relaxing the urethral sphincter. Therefore, polyuria would be an unexpected finding.
Choice B rationale
A maternal temperature of 37.4° C (99.4° F) is within the normal physiological range for a laboring client. Slight elevations can occur due to the metabolic demands of labor or dehydration, but this temperature does not indicate an adverse effect directly attributable to epidural analgesia. Fever, defined as a temperature above 38° C (100.4° F), can be associated with epidural use due to thermoregulatory changes.
Choice C rationale
A fetal heart rate of 152/min is within the normal range for a term fetus, typically 110-160 beats per minute. This finding indicates a healthy fetal response and does not suggest an adverse effect of epidural analgesia. Epidural analgesia itself usually does not directly alter the fetal heart rate in a negative way if maternal hemodynamics remain stable.
Choice D rationale
Hypotension is a common adverse effect of epidural analgesia. It occurs due to sympathetic blockade, which causes vasodilation and peripheral pooling of blood, leading to decreased venous return to the heart and a subsequent drop in cardiac output and blood pressure. This reduction in blood pressure can compromise uteroplacental perfusion.
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