A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an epidural for continuous labor analgesia.
Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the treatment is effective?
The client reports slight pressure with contractions.
The client has bladder distention.
The client's systolic blood pressure decreases by 20 mm Hg.
The client is unable to move their legs or feet.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
The primary goal of epidural analgesia is to provide effective pain relief while allowing the client to maintain some sensation, particularly pressure, which indicates the epidural is blocking nociceptive pain signals effectively without completely eliminating proprioceptive awareness. This selective blockade allows the client to feel contractions, facilitating pushing efforts, while minimizing pain perception by blocking transmission of pain impulses via spinal nerves.
Choice B rationale
Bladder distention is a common side effect of epidural analgesia, resulting from the blockade of parasympathetic nerve fibers innervating the bladder, which can impair the micturition reflex. While it indicates the epidural's systemic effect, it is an adverse effect requiring intervention, such as catheterization, rather than a direct indicator of effective pain management.
Choice C rationale
A decrease in systolic blood pressure by 20 mm Hg, or more, is a common adverse effect of epidural analgesia, caused by sympathetic blockade, leading to vasodilation and subsequent peripheral pooling of blood. While it demonstrates the systemic absorption and action of the anesthetic, it signifies a complication requiring management, not an indicator of effective pain relief for labor.
Choice D rationale
Inability to move legs or feet suggests a dense motor blockade, which can occur with epidural analgesia but is not the desired outcome for labor. While a degree of motor weakness may be present, complete motor paralysis can hinder effective pushing during the second stage of labor and is usually avoided to allow for maternal participation in the birth process.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Urinary output of 20 mL/hr is indicative of oliguria, which is a significant adverse effect of magnesium sulfate therapy. Magnesium is renally excreted, and decreased urinary output can lead to magnesium toxicity. The desired urinary output for a client receiving magnesium sulfate should be at least 25 to 30 mL/hr to ensure adequate drug excretion.
Choice B rationale
Fetal heart rate pattern with minimal variability is a concerning finding and can indicate central nervous system depression in the fetus, potentially due to excessive magnesium levels. Normal fetal heart rate variability reflects a healthy autonomic nervous system. Magnesium sulfate's therapeutic effect is on the mother, not directly on fetal heart rate variability.
Choice C rationale
A change in fetal heart rate from 150/min to 166/min, while still within the normal range (110-160 bpm), does not directly indicate the desired therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. This fluctuation could be due to various factors and is not a primary indicator of successful seizure prophylaxis or blood pressure control.
Choice D rationale
Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant that works by blocking neuromuscular transmission, thereby reducing hyperreflexia associated with preeclampsia. A decrease in deep tendon reflexes from 4+ (hyperactive) to 2+ (normal) indicates that the medication is achieving its desired therapeutic effect of central nervous system depression and reducing seizure risk.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Immediate cesarean birth is generally not indicated for intrauterine fetal demise unless there are maternal complications, such as hemorrhage or infection, or if the client has a prior uterine scar that contraindicates vaginal birth. Cesarean section carries higher risks for the mother compared to vaginal delivery and is usually reserved for specific obstetrical indications.
Choice B rationale
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite medication primarily used in the management of ectopic pregnancy or gestational trophoblastic disease due to its cytotoxic effects on rapidly dividing cells. It is not indicated for the induction of labor or expulsion of a fetus in cases of intrauterine fetal demise as it does not stimulate uterine contractions effectively for this purpose.
Choice C rationale
In cases of intrauterine fetal demise at 36 weeks of gestation, scheduled induction of labor is the most common and generally recommended treatment option. This approach allows for planned delivery, reduces the psychological burden of carrying a deceased fetus, and minimizes the risk of complications such as coagulopathy for the mother, typically occurring after prolonged retention.
Choice D rationale
Dilation with suction curettage is a procedure typically used for early pregnancy termination or management of miscarriage in the first or early second trimester. At 36 weeks of gestation, the size of the fetus and uterus makes this procedure unsafe and inappropriate for delivery of a deceased fetus, posing significant risks of uterine perforation or hemorrhage.
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