A nurse is working with a client who is 6 hour postpartum following a vaginal birth with first -degree laceration. Which of the following, actions is an example of the nurse providing a stepwise approach to manage the client's pain?
Offering opioids followed by topical treatment!
Offering mindfulness only for pain
Giving the ghest dose of opioids to make sure to eliminate the pain
Starting with ibuprofen for pain management and adding cold therapy for additional relief.
The Correct Answer is D
A) Offering opioids followed by topical treatment:
While opioids can be effective for pain, they are typically reserved for more severe pain and are not the first line of treatment for the moderate pain commonly experienced postpartum, especially after a first-degree laceration. A stepwise approach emphasizes starting with less potent options and progressing as needed, so offering opioids first is not appropriate here.
B) Offering mindfulness only for pain:
While mindfulness and other non-pharmacological techniques can be helpful for pain management, offering only mindfulness as the sole approach may not adequately address the client's pain, especially in the early postpartum period. A stepwise approach typically involves combining pharmacological and non-pharmacological methods to achieve effective pain relief, so relying only on mindfulness is not the most effective strategy for this situation.
C) Giving the highest dose of opioids to make sure to eliminate the pain:
Stepwise pain management involves starting with the least invasive and least potent option, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen, and escalating treatment if necessary. Using high doses of opioids first can lead to unnecessary side effects and risks, especially when less potent options would suffice.
D) Starting with ibuprofen for pain management and adding cold therapy for additional relief:
This is an example of a stepwise approach to pain management. Starting with ibuprofen, an NSAID, addresses inflammation and mild to moderate pain effectively, which is appropriate for a first-degree laceration. Cold therapy can be added for additional relief, as it helps reduce swelling and numb the area, which can further reduce discomfort. This combination of pharmacological and non-pharmacological treatments follows the principle of starting with less potent options and adding more if needed, making it the best choice.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) G5 T1 P2 A1 L2:
G (Gravida): Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current pregnancy. In this case, the woman is currently pregnant and has had 4 previous pregnancies (one miscarriage at 10 weeks, one at 22 weeks, and two live births). Therefore, her Gravida (G) is 5.
T (Term births): Term births are those that occur at or after 37 weeks of gestation. The woman delivered an 18-month-old daughter who was born 2 days after her due date, which is a term birth. Thus, her Term (T) is 1.
P (Preterm births): Preterm births occur between 20 and 36 weeks of gestation. The woman had a son born at 35 weeks, which is classified as a preterm birth. Therefore, the Preterm (P) is 2.
A (Abortions or miscarriages): Abortions refer to pregnancies that ended before 20 weeks of gestation. The woman experienced two miscarriages, one at 10 weeks and one at 22 weeks. Thus, the Abortions (A) is 1.
L (Living children): Living children are those who are currently alive. The woman has a 3-year-old son and an 18-month-old daughter, so the Living (L) is 2.
Thus, the correct GTPAL classification is G5 T1 P2 A1 L2.
B) G5 T2 P2 A1 L2:
This is incorrect because the woman had only one term birth (not two). She delivered her daughter at term, but the son was preterm (born at 35 weeks). Therefore, her Term (T) should be 1, not 2.
C) G4 T1 P2 A2 L2:
This is incorrect because the woman is currently pregnant, so her Gravida (G) is 5, not 4. Additionally, the woman had 1 abortion, not 2.
D) G4 T1 P1 A2 L2:
This is also incorrect because the woman is currently pregnant, so her Gravida (G) is 5, not 4. Furthermore, the woman had 2 preterm births, not 1.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"D"}
Explanation
Uterine rupture: A client in active labor with a history of prior vaginal birth is at risk for uterine rupture, particularly when experiencing intense contractions and increasing pelvic pressure. While previous vaginal delivery lowers the risk compared to a history of cesarean section, prolonged or strong contractions can still contribute to uterine rupture, especially if there is an undiagnosed uterine scar or excessive uterine stress.
Increasing pelvic pressure: The client reports increasing pelvic pressure despite receiving an epidural, which can be a sign of impending uterine rupture. While pelvic pressure is expected during labor, a sudden or intense sensation, particularly in the setting of strong contractions and rapid cervical dilation, warrants close monitoring.
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