A nurse manager in a health clinic is discussing complications associated with sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements should be included in the discussion?
"Herpes simplex virus can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease."
"A complication of syphilis during pregnancy is low-birth-weight infants."
"Human papillomavirus can lead to cancer of the cervix."
"A complication of chlamydia in males is meningitis."
The Correct Answer is C
A. Herpes simplex virus can cause genital herpes, but it typically does not lead to pelvic inflammatory disease. Pelvic inflammatory disease is more commonly associated with untreated chlamydia or gonorrhea infections.
B. Syphilis during pregnancy can lead to various complications such as stillbirth, neonatal death, or congenital syphilis in the newborn, but low birth weight is not a typical complication.
C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is a known risk factor for the development of cervical cancer. Certain high-risk strains of HPV can lead to precancerous changes in cervical cells,
which, if left untreated, may progress to cervical cancer.
D. Meningitis is not a typical complication of chlamydia in males. In males, untreated chlamydia can lead to complications such as epididymitis or infertility.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Pain level of "4" on a scale of 0 to 10 indicates mild pain and may not require immediate attention compared to other potential issues.
B. Vital signs within normal range, including temperature and blood pressure, do not indicate an urgent need for assessment.
C. Urinary catheter output of 150 mL in the last 3 hours is within the expected range postoperatively and does not require immediate assessment.
D. Saturated perineal pads suggest excessive bleeding, which could indicate a potential complication such as hemorrhage. Therefore, the nurse should assess this patient first to ensure prompt intervention if necessary.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. This response accurately describes the pathophysiology of sickle cell crisis. During a crisis, sickled red blood cells clump together, leading to microvascular occlusion and impaired blood flow to tissues, resulting in pain.
B. Bleeding in the joints is not a characteristic feature of sickle cell crisis. It may occur in other conditions such as hemophilia or osteoarthritis but not in sickle cell crisis.
C. Disturbance in cellular metabolism is not the primary mechanism underlying the pain experienced during sickle cell crisis.
D. Bone marrow expansion with sickled cells may contribute to bone pain in sickle cell disease, but it is not the primary cause of pain during a sickle cell crisis.
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