A nurse on a labor unit is admitting a client who is lying supine in her bed and reports painful contractions. The nurse determines that the contractions have a duration of 1 min and a frequency of 3 min. The nurse obtains the following vital signs: fetal heart rate 130/min,
maternal heart rate 128/min, and maternal blood pressure 82/54 mm Hg. Which of the following is the first priority action for the nurse to take?
Reposition the client with one hip elevated or on her left side.
Notify the provider of the findings.
Ask the client if she needs pain medication.
Have the client empty her bladder.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Reposition the client with one hip elevated or on her left side: This is the correct first priority action. The client's vital signs indicate hypotension (low blood pressure), which may be caused by supine hypotensive syndrome. This condition occurs when the pregnant uterus compresses the vena cava, reducing blood return to the heart and causing a drop in blood pressure. Repositioning the client on her left side or elevating one hip can relieve the pressure on the vena cava and
improve blood flow to both the mother and the baby.
B) Notify the provider of the findings: While it is essential to inform the provider about the client's status, the first priority is to address the potential cause of hypotension and maternal discomfort.
C) Ask the client if she needs pain medication: Pain management is essential, but the client's vital signs and potential hypotensive condition take precedence as the first priority.
D) Have the client empty her bladder: Emptying the bladder can help reduce pressure on the vena cava and may improve blood flow, but it is not the first priority action in this situation. Repositioning the client is the initial priority to relieve supine hypotensive syndrome.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A: While relaxation can be helpful during a pelvic examination, it is not the most comprehensive response to address the client's concerns.
Choice B: A pelvic examination is not always required for prescribing birth control pills. In many cases, a healthcare provider can prescribe oral contraceptives based on the client's medical history and other factors without a pelvic exam.
Choice C: This response encourages the client to express her specific concerns and fears related to the examination, allowing the nurse to address them directly and provide appropriate support and reassurance.
Choice D: Although offering support during the exam is important, it does not address the client's nervousness and concerns about the examination itself.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A.A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a cough and fever may have an infection, which is concerning, but it is not immediately life-threatening. The nurse should assess this client soon, but it is not the highest priority.
B.A client who has missed a period and reports vaginal spotting could be experiencing an early pregnancy complication, such as a miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy. This situation requires attention, but it is not as urgent as painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester.
C.A client at 14 weeks of gestation with nausea and vomiting is likely experiencing common pregnancy symptoms. While these symptoms can be uncomfortable and require management, they are not typically urgent.
D.A client at 28 weeks of gestation with painless vaginal bleeding could be experiencing placenta previa or another serious condition that poses an immediate risk to both the mother and the fetus. This situation requires urgent assessment and intervention.
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