A nurse plans care for a patient with acute pancreatitis. Which intervention would the nurse include in this patient's plan of care to reduce discomfort?
Maintain nothing by mouth (NPO) and administer intravenous fluids.
Provide small, frequent feedings with no concentrated sweets.
Administer morphine sulfate intramuscularly every 4 hours as needed.
Position the patient in a flat, supine position to decrease discomfort.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Maintaining nothing by mouth (NPO) and administering intravenous fluids is the best intervention to reduce discomfort in a patient with acute pancreatitis. NPO status helps to rest the pancreas by preventing the secretion of pancreatic enzymes that can exacerbate inflammation and pain. Intravenous fluids are essential to maintain hydration and electrolyte balance while the patient is not eating or drinking.
Choice B reason: Providing small, frequent feedings with no concentrated sweets is not appropriate for a patient with acute pancreatitis. The priority is to keep the patient NPO to rest the pancreas. Introducing any food can stimulate the pancreas and worsen the condition.
Choice C reason: Administering morphine sulfate intramuscularly every 4 hours as needed can help manage pain, but the preferred route for pain medication in acute pancreatitis is intravenous, as it provides quicker relief and avoids the discomfort of intramuscular injections. Pain management is important, but it should be part of a broader plan that includes NPO status and IV fluids.
Choice D reason: Positioning the patient in a flat, supine position is not recommended for reducing discomfort in acute pancreatitis. Patients often find relief in a semi-Fowler's position (head elevated) or by leaning forward, which can help reduce abdominal pain and pressure on the inflamed pancreas.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: A urine output of 40 mL/hr is within the acceptable range, as normal urine output is typically around 30-50 mL/hr. While it should be monitored, it does not indicate an immediate life-threatening issue requiring urgent assessment.
Choice B reason: A blood pressure change from 128/74 to 110/88 mmHg may indicate potential hemodynamic instability. Although the systolic blood pressure has decreased, the diastolic pressure has increased, which can be concerning. This patient may be at risk for developing more significant blood pressure changes or other complications, making this situation the highest priority for assessment.
Choice C reason: An oxygen saturation level of 94% is generally considered acceptable. While it is on the lower end of the normal range, it does not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition. Continuous monitoring is important, but it is not the most urgent situation compared to the blood pressure change.
Choice D reason: A pulse change from 100 to 88 beats/min represents a decrease in heart rate but remains within the normal range for adult heart rate (60-100 beats/min). While this change should be noted and monitored, it is not as urgent as the blood pressure change that may indicate hemodynamic instability.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: While atrial fibrillation, bilateral basilar crackles, and a blood pressure of 110/62 indicate important findings in a client with heart failure, they are not immediately life-threatening compared to the symptoms in choice d. Bilateral crackles suggest fluid overload and pulmonary congestion, which require attention, but the priority should be on more critical signs of decreased perfusion.
Choice B reason: Weight gain of 1 kg in 3 days and mild dyspnea with exercise are signs of fluid retention and worsening heart failure. However, they are not as urgent as the symptoms of confusion and low urine output, which suggest severe hypoperfusion and potential organ failure.
Choice C reason: A SpO2 of 92% on 2L nasal cannula, respirations of 20/min, and 1+ edema of the lower extremities indicate mild hypoxemia and fluid overload. Although these findings are important and need management, they are not as critical as the symptoms in choice d, which suggest severe hypoperfusion and a potential emergency.
Choice D reason: Confusion, urine output of 15 mL over the last 2 hours, and orthopnea are the most concerning findings. Confusion indicates decreased cerebral perfusion, which is a sign of severe heart failure and possibly impending cardiogenic shock. Low urine output (oliguria) suggests poor renal perfusion, indicating that the kidneys are not receiving enough blood flow. Orthopnea (difficulty breathing while lying down) is a classic symptom of severe heart failure and pulmonary congestion. These symptoms suggest that the client is in a critical condition that requires immediate intervention to improve perfusion and prevent further deterioration.
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