A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

A client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hr ago and reports severe pain.

A client who has preeclampsia with a BP of 128/80 mm Hg

A client who is scheduled for discharge following a vaginal delivery without complications.

A client who experienced a vaginal birth 24 hr ago and reports a scant amount of lochia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: This client should be seen first, as she has the most urgent and acute problem that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Severe pain after a cesarean birth can indicate infection, hemorrhage, or wound dehiscence, which are serious complications that can affect the client's recovery and well-being. The nurse should evaluate the client's pain level, location, and characteristics, and administer analgesics as prescribed. The nurse should also inspect the incision site, monitor the vital signs and lochia, and provide comfort measures.

Choice B reason: This client should be seen second, as she has a chronic and stable problem that requires ongoing monitoring and management. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption. However, this client has a mild elevation of blood pressure that does not indicate severe preeclampsia or imminent eclampsia. The nurse should check the client's urine protein, reflexes, and edema, and report any signs of worsening condition to the provider.

Choice C reason: This client should be seen third, as she has a normal and expected outcome that requires routine education and discharge planning. A vaginal delivery without complications does not pose any significant risk or concern for the client or the newborn. The nurse should review the discharge instructions, such as follow-up appointments, self-care, breastfeeding, and warning signs, and answer any questions that the client may have.

Choice D reason: This client should be seen last, as she has a common and benign finding that requires reassurance and documentation. A scant amount of lochia after a vaginal birth is normal and expected, as it reflects the healing and involution of the uterus. The nurse should assess the color, odor, and consistency of the lochia, and provide perineal care and hygiene education to the client.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: To call for an immediate magnesium sulfate level is not the immediate action that the nurse should take, as it is a diagnostic test that requires a blood sample and a laboratory analysis, which can take time and delay the treatment. The nurse should first stop the infusion and notify the provider, as the client is showing signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity, which is a life-threatening condition that can cause respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, or coma.

Choice B reason: To prepare to administer hydralazine is not the immediate action that the nurse should take, as it is a pharmacological intervention that requires a prescription and an assessment of the blood pressure and the fetal status. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive drug that lowers the blood pressure and prevents the complications of severe preeclampsia, such as eclampsia, stroke, or organ damage. However, the client's blood pressure is not very high and is not the main problem at the moment.

Choice C reason: To discontinue the magnesium sulfate infusion is the immediate action that the nurse should take, as it is the first and most important intervention that can reverse the effects of magnesium sulfate and restore the neuromuscular function and the respiratory rate. Magnesium sulfate is a drug that prevents seizures and lowers the blood pressure in clients with severe preeclampsia, but it can also cause toxicity if the dose is too high or the infusion is too fast.

Choice D reason: To administer oxygen is not the immediate action that the nurse should take, as it is a supportive intervention that improves the oxygen delivery to the tissues and organs, but does not address the underlying cause of the respiratory depression, which is the magnesium sulfate toxicity. The nurse should administer oxygen only after stopping the infusion and assessing the oxygen saturation and the respiratory status.

A. Prone positioning facilitates bone alignment. B. No special treatment is necessary. C. The shoulder should be immobilized and cast applied. D. Parents should be taught range-of-motion exercises.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The correct answer is B. No special treatment is necessary.

Choice A reason: Prone positioning is not typically recommended for a fractured clavicle in infants. It does not facilitate bone alignment in the case of clavicle fractures and is not part of standard care.

Choice B reason: This is the correct choice because clavicle fractures in newborns generally heal on their own without the need for special treatment. Parents may be instructed to pin the child’s sleeve to the front of their clothing to avoid moving the arm while it heals, but beyond gentle handling, no other special treatment is necessary. In most cases, clavicle fractures in newborns heal very quickly without any problems, and usually, no treatment is required.

Choice C reason: Immobilization and casting are not standard care for newborn clavicle fractures. These fractures typically heal without such interventions, and immobilization with a cast is not needed for these types of injuries in infants.

Choice D reason: While range-of-motion exercises might be beneficial later in the healing process, they are not the primary consideration immediately after the fracture occurs. The initial care plan focuses on gentle handling and comfort for the infant, not on exercises.

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A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

What information regarding a fractured clavicle is most important for the nurse to take into consideration when planning the infant's care?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor at 40 weeks of gestation and reports that she has saturated two perineal pads with blood in the past 30 min. The nurse caring for her suspects placenta previa. Which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hr postpartum. Which of the following findings should alert the nurse to the possibility of a postpartum complication?

A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and at risk for placental abruption. The nurse should recognize that which of the following is the most common risk factor for abruption?

Which client is at greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)?

A nurse is assessing a newborn who was born at 42.5 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A nurse is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate IV to a client who is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following is the priority nursing assessment for this client?

A nurse is caring for a newborn who has macrosomia and whose mother has diabetes mellitus. The nurse should recognize which of the following newborn complications as the priority focus of care?