A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

A client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hr ago and reports severe pain.

A client who has preeclampsia with a BP of 128/80 mm Hg

A client who is scheduled for discharge following a vaginal delivery without complications.

A client who experienced a vaginal birth 24 hr ago and reports a scant amount of lochia.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: This client should be seen first, as she has the most urgent and acute problem that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Severe pain after a cesarean birth can indicate infection, hemorrhage, or wound dehiscence, which are serious complications that can affect the client's recovery and well-being. The nurse should evaluate the client's pain level, location, and characteristics, and administer analgesics as prescribed. The nurse should also inspect the incision site, monitor the vital signs and lochia, and provide comfort measures.

Choice B reason: This client should be seen second, as she has a chronic and stable problem that requires ongoing monitoring and management. Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can cause complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption. However, this client has a mild elevation of blood pressure that does not indicate severe preeclampsia or imminent eclampsia. The nurse should check the client's urine protein, reflexes, and edema, and report any signs of worsening condition to the provider.

Choice C reason: This client should be seen third, as she has a normal and expected outcome that requires routine education and discharge planning. A vaginal delivery without complications does not pose any significant risk or concern for the client or the newborn. The nurse should review the discharge instructions, such as follow-up appointments, self-care, breastfeeding, and warning signs, and answer any questions that the client may have.

Choice D reason: This client should be seen last, as she has a common and benign finding that requires reassurance and documentation. A scant amount of lochia after a vaginal birth is normal and expected, as it reflects the healing and involution of the uterus. The nurse should assess the color, odor, and consistency of the lochia, and provide perineal care and hygiene education to the client.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Blunt force trauma is a possible risk factor for placental abruption, which is a condition where the placenta detaches from the uterine wall and causes bleeding, pain, and fetal distress. However, blunt force trauma is not the most common risk factor, as it accounts for only a small percentage of cases. The most common causes of blunt force trauma are motor vehicle accidents, falls, or domestic violence.

Choice B reason: Hypertension is the most common risk factor for placental abruption, as it affects about 50% of cases. Hypertension can cause vasospasm and reduced blood flow to the placenta, which can weaken the attachment and lead to separation. Hypertension can be chronic, gestational, or related to preeclampsia.

Choice C reason: Gestational diabetes mellitus is not a risk factor for placental abruption, but rather a condition where the client develops high blood sugar levels during pregnancy and can cause complications, such as macrosomia, polyhydramnios, or neonatal hypoglycemia. Gestational diabetes mellitus does not affect the placental attachment or function.

Choice D reason: Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for placental abruption, as it can cause vasoconstriction and reduced oxygen delivery to the placenta, which can impair its growth and development. However, cigarette smoking is not the most common risk factor, as it affects about 25% of cases.

Correct Answer is ["0.5"]

Explanation

To calculate the number of tablets, the nurse should use the following formula:

Number of tablets = (Desired dose / Available dose) x (Available form / Desired form)

In this case, the desired dose is 50 mg, the available dose is 100 mg, the available form is 1 tablet, and the desired form is 1 tablet. Therefore, the formula becomes:

Number of tablets = (50 mg / 100 mg) x (1 tablet / 1 tablet)

Number of tablets = 0.5 x 1

Number of tablets = 0.5

The nurse should round the answer to the nearest tenth, which is 0.5. The nurse should use a leading zero if the answer is less than 1, which is 0.5. The nurse should not use a trailing zero, which means 0.5 and not 0.50.

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A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse in a provider's office is caring for a client who is at 34 weeks of gestation and at risk for placental abruption. The nurse should recognize that which of the following is the most common risk factor for abruption?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is preparing to administer atenolol 50 mg PO daily to a client. The amount available is atenolol 100 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero)

Correct Answer is ["0.5"]

Explanation

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