The nurse is teaching a pregnant woman with type 2 diabetes about her diet during pregnancy. Which client statement indicates that the nurse's teaching was successful?
"I'll basically follow the same diet that I was following before I became pregnant."
"Because I need extra protein, I'll have to increase my intake of milk and meat."
"I'll adjust my diet and insulin based on the results of my urine tests for glucose."
"Pregnancy affects insulin production, so I'll need to make adjustments in my diet."
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: "I'll basically follow the same diet that I was following before I became pregnant." is an incorrect statement, because it indicates that the client does not understand the need for dietary changes during pregnancy. The client should follow a diet that is individualized, balanced, and consistent in carbohydrate intake, and that meets the nutritional needs of pregnancy.
Choice B reason: "Because I need extra protein, I'll have to increase my intake of milk and meat." is an incorrect statement, because it indicates that the client does not understand the role of protein in diabetes management. The client should consume adequate but not excessive amounts of protein, and choose lean sources of protein, such as poultry, fish, eggs, and legumes.
Choice C reason: "I'll adjust my diet and insulin based on the results of my urine tests for glucose." is an incorrect statement, because it indicates that the client does not understand the limitations of urine tests for glucose. The client should monitor her blood glucose levels regularly, and adjust her diet and insulin accordingly, under the guidance of the provider. Urine tests for glucose are not accurate or reliable indicators of blood glucose levels.
Choice D reason: "Pregnancy affects insulin production, so I'll need to make adjustments in my diet." is a correct statement, because it indicates that the client understands the impact of pregnancy on diabetes. The client should be aware that pregnancy can cause insulin resistance, especially in the second and third trimesters, and that her diet may need to be modified to achieve optimal glycemic control.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Nervousness is a common and expected side effect of terbutaline, which is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist that stimulates the sympathetic nervous system and relaxes the uterine smooth muscle. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, but can provide reassurance and comfort to the client.
Choice B reason: Tremors are also a common and expected side effect of terbutaline, as it causes increased muscle activity and shakiness. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, but can monitor the client's vital signs and electrolyte levels, and advise the client to avoid caffeine and other stimulants.
Choice C reason: Dyspnea is an uncommon and serious side effect of terbutaline, as it can indicate pulmonary edema, which is a life-threatening condition where fluid accumulates in the lungs and impairs gas exchange. The nurse should report this finding to the provider immediately and prepare for interventions, such as oxygen therapy, diuretics, or discontinuation of terbutaline.
Choice D reason: Headaches are also a common and expected side effect of terbutaline, as it causes vasodilation and increased blood flow to the brain. The nurse does not need to report this finding to the provider, but can administer analgesics as prescribed, and encourage the client to rest and hydrate.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Primigravida in spontaneous labor with preterm twins is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as preterm births are associated with lower blood loss and smaller placentas. However, this client may have other complications, such as preterm labor, premature rupture of membranes, or fetal growth restriction.
Choice B reason: Primiparous woman (G 2, P 1-0-0-1) being prepared for an emergency cesarean birth for fetal distress is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as cesarean births are associated with higher blood loss and larger incisions. However, this client may have other complications, such as infection, wound dehiscence, or thromboembolism.
Choice C reason: Multiparous woman (G 3, P 2-0-0-2) with an 8-hour labor is at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as multiparity and rapid labor are both risk factors for uterine atony, which is the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract and retract after delivery, and can cause excessive bleeding and hypovolemic shock.
Choice D reason: Woman with severe preeclampsia on magnesium sulfate whose labor is being induced is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as preeclampsia and magnesium sulfate are both risk factors for late postpartum hemorrhage, which occurs after 24 hours of delivery. However, this client may have other complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption.
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