A nurse working on a surgical unit is developing a care plan for a client who has paraplegia. The client has an area of nonblanchable erythema over his ischium. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the care plan?
Place the client upright on a donut-shaped cushion.
Turn and reposition the client every 15 minutes while sitting.
Apply a moisture-barrier cream to the affected area.
Turn and reposition the client every 3 hours while in bed.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Using a donut-shaped cushion is not recommended, as it can increase pressure on surrounding tissues, worsening ischemia in the ischial area. Nonblanchable erythema indicates early pressure injury, requiring pressure relief and skin protection. This intervention risks further tissue damage, making it inappropriate for managing the client’s condition.
Choice B reason: Repositioning every 15 minutes while sitting is excessive and impractical, potentially causing discomfort or skin shear. For paraplegic clients, repositioning every 1-2 hours while sitting, combined with pressure-relieving cushions, prevents progression of nonblanchable erythema. This frequency is not evidence-based for pressure injury prevention, making it incorrect.
Choice C reason: Applying moisture-barrier cream protects the skin from breakdown in the presence of nonblanchable erythema, an early stage of pressure injury. For paraplegic clients, who are at high risk due to immobility, this intervention reduces moisture-related damage and supports skin integrity, aligning with evidence-based pressure injury prevention strategies.
Choice D reason: Repositioning every 3 hours in bed is insufficient for a paraplegic client with nonblanchable erythema, as guidelines recommend every 2 hours to relieve pressure. Prolonged pressure risks advancing tissue damage, especially in high-risk areas like the ischium. This intervention is inadequate for preventing pressure injury progression.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Disulfiram is an oral medication, not injectable, used to deter alcohol consumption by causing adverse reactions. Monthly injections apply to drugs like naltrexone, not disulfiram, which requires daily oral dosing to maintain its deterrent effect in alcohol use disorder treatment.
Choice B reason: Taking disulfiram before quitting alcohol is incorrect, as it is started post-abstinence to prevent relapse. Disulfiram inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase, causing acetaldehyde buildup if alcohol is consumed, making it effective only in alcohol-free clients to deter drinking.
Choice C reason: Avoiding over-the-counter medications with alcohol is correct, as disulfiram causes severe reactions (nausea, flushing) with alcohol ingestion, including from medications like cough syrups. This reflects understanding of disulfiram’s mechanism, ensuring safety by preventing unintended alcohol exposure.
Choice D reason: Continuing disulfiram for 5 years is not standard, as duration varies per treatment plan. Disulfiram supports early abstinence, not fixed long-term use. This statement misrepresents its role, as therapy length depends on individual recovery needs, not a predetermined timeframe.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Decreased serotonin levels are linked to depression, as serotonin regulates mood in the brain’s limbic system. Antidepressants like SSRIs increase serotonin, alleviating low mood and anhedonia, making this client a prime candidate for therapy to address neurochemical imbalances in depression.
Choice B reason: Decreased cortisol is not directly tied to depression requiring antidepressants. Cortisol dysregulation may occur in stress disorders, but antidepressants target serotonin or norepinephrine, not adrenal function, making this client less suitable for antidepressant therapy based on this imbalance.
Choice C reason: Elevated dopamine is linked to schizophrenia or mania, not depression. Antidepressants target serotonin or norepinephrine, not dopamine. This client may need antipsychotics or mood stabilizers, not antidepressants, as dopamine excess does not indicate depressive pathology requiring such therapy.
Choice D reason: Elevated thyroid levels suggest hyperthyroidism, mimicking anxiety, not depression. Antidepressants are not indicated, as treatment targets thyroid function. Depression may coexist, but thyroid correction is prioritized, making this client unsuitable for primary antidepressant therapy based on this finding.
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