A patient admitted with possible stroke has been aphasic for 3 hours and has a current blood pressure (BP) of 174/94 mm Hg. Which order by the health care provider should the nurse question?
Start a labetalol drip to keep BP less than 140/90 mm Hg.
Keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees.
Begin tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) intravenously per protocol.
Infuse normal saline intravenously at 75 mL/hr.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Start a labetalol drip to keep BP less than 140/90 mm Hg: This order is appropriate because it aims to lower the patient's blood pressure to a target range recommended for acute ischemic stroke management.
B. Keep the head of the bed elevated at least 30 degrees: This intervention is part of stroke management to prevent aspiration and improve cerebral perfusion.
C. Begin tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) intravenously per protocol: The nurse should question this order because tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) is contraindicated in patients with stroke who have had symptoms for more than 3 hours or have unknown time of onset, as in this case where the patient has been aphasic for 3 hours. Administering tPA in this situation could increase the risk of bleeding complications without providing benefit.
D. Infuse normal saline intravenously at 75 mL/hr: This order is appropriate for maintaining hydration and intravascular volume in the acute care setting.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administer an oral analgesic: Administering analgesics may provide relief from pain, but it does not address the underlying cause of the headache and stiff neck. Assessing the client's neurological status is the priority to determine the severity and potential cause of the symptoms.
B. Perform a complete blood count: While laboratory tests may be necessary to further evaluate the client, they are not the first action to take when the client presents with symptoms suggestive of a neurological emergency such as meningitis. Assessing the client's neurological status and ruling out serious conditions take precedence.
C. Evaluate the client's neurological status: Assessing the client's neurological status, including level of consciousness, motor and sensory function, and signs of meningeal irritation (such as neck stiffness), is crucial for identifying potential neurological emergencies such as meningitis and guiding further management.
D. Check the client's temperature: While obtaining vital signs, including temperature, is important in the assessment of a client with suspected meningitis, it is not the first action to take. Assessing the client's neurological status and initiating appropriate interventions based on the findings are the priority.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Apply an eye patch to the right eye: Applying an eye patch to the right eye would further limit the patient's visual field, exacerbating the homonymous hemianopsia. This intervention is not appropriate for managing hemianopsia.
B. Teach the patient that the left visual deficit will resolve: Homonymous hemianopsia typically results from damage to the visual pathway in the brain and may not resolve completely. While visual rehabilitation techniques may help improve compensatory strategies, it is important to acknowledge and address the permanent nature of the deficit.
C. Approach the patient from the right side: Approaching the patient from the right side may startle them and increase the risk of falls or accidents due to the inability to perceive objects on their left side. The nurse should approach the patient from the unaffected side (the left side) to minimize the risk of injury.
D. Place needed objects on the patient's left side: Placing needed objects on the patient's left side helps compensate for the visual deficit by ensuring that essential items are within the patient's field of vision. This intervention promotes independence and safety for the patient with homonymous hemianopsia.
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