A patient had a vaginal birth 4 hours ago. Her hematocrit of 35% on admission for labor. Her current hematocrit is 25% which of the following statements by the nurse might best explain that

“Because you're not eating enough iron-rich foods like meat."

"Because you are hemoconcentrated the hematocrit dropped after delivery."

"Because your blood volume has doubled, your hematocrit is lower."

"This change in hematocrit indicates a postpartum hemorrhage."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. A decrease in hematocrit after delivery is more likely due to physiological changes rather than dietary factors alone, though iron intake is important for overall recovery.

B. Hemoconcentration refers to an increase in hematocrit due to a decrease in plasma volume, but this is not the reason for a decreased hematocrit postpartum.

C. During pregnancy, blood volume increases to support both the mother and fetus. After delivery, plasma volume returns to pre-pregnancy levels, which can cause a relative decrease in hematocrit.

D. A significant drop in hematocrit could indicate postpartum hemorrhage, but a slight drop can be expected as part of normal post-delivery physiology.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Scarring or malformation of the fallopian tube increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. This condition can prevent the fertilized egg from traveling properly to the uterus, leading to implantation in the fallopian tube.

B. Urinary tract infections are not directly related to malformation or scarring of the fallopian tubes.

C. Decreased estrogen levels are not directly caused by fallopian tube scarring.

D. Early menopause is unrelated to fallopian tube scarring, which typically affects fertility but not directly menopause onset.

A. Tachysystole B. Tachycardia with minimal variability C. Late decelerations with absent variability D. Sinusoidal Pattern E. Absent variability with no periodic changes F. Bradycardia with absent variability G. Late decelerations with moderate variability H. Variable decelerations with absent variability

Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","F"]

Explanation

A. Tachysystole refers to excessive uterine contractions, which can cause fetal distress and indicates a category 3 strip.

B. Tachycardia with minimal variability does not qualify as a category 3 pattern; it is concerning but not as severe as category 3.

C. Late decelerations with absent variability are highly concerning for fetal compromise, making the strip category 3.

D. A sinusoidal pattern indicates severe fetal distress and categorizes the strip as category 3.

E. Absent variability with no periodic changes may suggest a non-reassuring pattern but is not categorized as a category 3 strip unless other signs of fetal distress are present.

F. Bradycardia with absent variability is another critical pattern, indicating poor fetal oxygenation and requiring intervention, categorizing it as a category 3 strip.

G. Late decelerations with moderate variability indicate a category 2 strip, not category 3.

H. Variable decelerations with absent variability can be concerning, but it doesn't automatically classify as category 3 without further complications.

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A patient had a vaginal birth 4 hours ago. Her hematocrit of 35% on admission for labor. Her current hematocrit is 25% which of the following statements by the nurse might best explain that

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","F"]

Explanation

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