A patient is being prepared for an amniocentesis. The patient is a G2P1 and is 34 weeks gestation suffering from pre eclampsia. The patient asks what the purpose of this amniocentesis is. The best response from the nurse would be:
To identify abnormal fetal cells.
To detect metabolic disorders.
To determine fetal lung maturity.
To identify the sex of the fetus.
The Correct Answer is C
A. To identify abnormal fetal cells: This is typically the purpose of amniocentesis earlier in pregnancy to check for genetic disorders, not at 34 weeks.
B. To detect metabolic disorders: Metabolic disorders are usually identified through newborn screening after birth rather than through late pregnancy amniocentesis.
C. To determine fetal lung maturity: At 34 weeks gestation, determining fetal lung maturity is critical, especially in cases of preeclampsia, as early delivery might be necessary.
D. To identify the sex of the fetus: The sex of the fetus is usually determined earlier in pregnancy if necessary, not at 34 weeks, and it is not the primary purpose in this context.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["C","E","F"]
Explanation
A. The active stage of labor typically begins when cervical dilation is around 4 cm. LC’s dilation of 6 cm suggests that she is already in the active phase, but this is not confirmed based on this vaginal exam alone.
B. LC is not 80% dilated; the figure 6/80/-1 indicates 6 cm dilation, 80% effaced, and -1 station (fetal head is still above the ischial spines).
C. The fetal station of -1 indicates that the presenting part (head) is 1 cm above the pelvic outlet, which is consistent with this description.
D. The presenting part being 1 cm below the ischial spines would indicate a station of +1, which is not described here.
E. The cervix is 80% effaced, meaning it is more than halfway thinned, which is correct.
F. With a dilation of 6 cm, LC is in the active phase of labor, not the latent phase, but the question refers to the latent phase for comparison.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Rhogam is usually given at 28 weeks of pregnancy, not 4 days after delivery.
B. Rh-negative mothers who have had an Rh-positive baby are typically given Rhogam at 28 weeks gestation to prevent Rh sensitization. Rhogam is also given after delivery if the baby is Rh-positive.
C. Rhogam is necessary for Rh-negative women who have had an Rh-positive baby, as it helps prevent Rh sensitization in subsequent pregnancies.
D. Only the baby is at risk for Rh incompatibility, not the partner.
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