The nurse is caring for a 2-hour-old neonate who is 39 week gestation with apgars 8/9 at 1 and 5 minutes at birth born via C Section. While doing an initial exam on post partum the nurse notes nasal flaring, a respiratory rate of 70, and audible high pitched wheezing with every breath. The infant has acrocyanosis. The nurse calls the doctor and tells him that she suspects which condition?
Transient tachypnea of the newborn.
Respiratory distress syndrome.
Meconium aspiration syndrome.
Tracheal esophageal fistula.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) is a common condition in full-term infants, particularly those born via C-section, and is characterized by rapid breathing (tachypnea), nasal flaring, and mild respiratory distress within the first few hours after birth. The condition typically resolves within 48-72 hours.
B. Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) usually occurs in premature infants, and the symptoms described do not match this condition.
C. Meconium aspiration syndrome is usually associated with meconium-stained amniotic fluid and typically presents with more severe respiratory distress and other signs of obstruction.
D. A tracheoesophageal fistula would present with more severe respiratory symptoms, such as choking and coughing, and is not typically characterized by tachypnea alone.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C"]
Explanation
A. Maternal hypotension is a common side effect of epidural anesthesia, which can reduce uteroplacental blood flow and lead to late decelerations in the fetal heart rate.
B. Maternal tachycardia is not typically associated with late decelerations; it is more often seen with early decelerations or fetal distress.
C. An IV bolus prior to the epidural helps maintain blood volume and prevent hypotension. Without it, the risk of hypotension and subsequent late decelerations increases.
D. Placenta previa typically causes painless vaginal bleeding and may lead to abnormal FHR patterns, but it is not a direct cause of late decelerations post-epidural.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A cerclage is a surgical procedure in which a suture is placed around the cervix to prevent it from dilating prematurely, typically done in women with a history of cervical insufficiency or preterm labor.
B. A cerclage does not prevent preterm labor itself but helps to prevent early cervical dilation, which could lead to preterm labor.
C. A cerclage is done to prevent cervical dilation that occurs too early in pregnancy, especially in women with a history of spontaneous abortions due to cervical insufficiency.
D. Cerclage is often recommended for women with a history of spontaneous abortions, particularly those caused by cervical incompetence or early dilation.
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