A patient tells the nurse that she knows all about sexually transmitted infections and proceeds to make the following statements. Which one is the only correct statement that the client makes?
Biologically, both women and men have an equal risk for acquiring sexually transmitted infections from a sexual partner.
It is possible to have a sexually transmitted infection without having any signs or symptoms of infection.
All sexually transmitted infections are curable.
Using condoms completely eliminates the risk of acquiring sexually transmitted infections.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Biologically, women are more susceptible to sexually transmitted infections (STIs) due to anatomical differences, such as a larger mucosal surface area, making this statement incorrect.
Choice B rationale
Many STIs, such as chlamydia and gonorrhea, can be asymptomatic. This means a person can have an STI without showing signs or symptoms, making routine screening important.
Choice C rationale
Not all STIs are curable. While bacterial STIs like syphilis and gonorrhea can be treated with antibiotics, viral STIs like herpes and HIV can only be managed, not cured.
Choice D rationale
Condoms significantly reduce the risk of acquiring STIs but do not eliminate it entirely. They protect against fluid transmission but not necessarily from skin-to-skin contact infections like HPV.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Amniotic fluid embolism is characterized by the sudden onset of respiratory distress due to the entry of amniotic fluid into the maternal circulation.
Choice B rationale
Maternal bradycardia is not a specific symptom of amniotic fluid embolism and may be related to other cardiovascular conditions.
Choice C rationale
Category 1 fetal heart tracing indicates normal fetal heart rate and is not associated with amniotic fluid embolism.
Choice D rationale
Acute, continuous abdominal pain could indicate other obstetric emergencies but is not specifically linked to amniotic fluid embolism symptoms like respiratory distress.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
History of uterine rupture poses a significant risk for a trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC) due to the potential recurrence of uterine rupture, which can be life-threatening for both mother and fetus.
Choice B rationale
Previous cesarean section for breech presentation is not a contraindication for TOLAC. Patients with prior cesarean deliveries can consider TOLAC if there are no additional risk factors.
Choice C rationale
Previous low transverse cesarean section birth is often considered suitable for TOLAC, as the lower segment incision has a lower risk of rupture compared to vertical or classical incisions.
Choice D rationale
Low-risk pregnancy alone is not a contraindication for TOLAC. It is essential to assess other factors such as uterine scarring, maternal health, and fetal status when considering TOLAC eligibility.
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