A patient who has been anticoagulated with warfarin has been admitted for gastrointestinal bleeding. The history and physical examination indicate that the patient may have taken too much warfarin. The nurse anticipates that the patient will receive what treatment?

Vitamin K

Vitamin E

Protamine sulfate

Potassium chloride

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Warfarin overdose causes excessive anticoagulation, increasing bleeding risk by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X). Vitamin K reverses this by restoring clotting factor synthesis, correcting INR and stopping gastrointestinal bleeding, making it the standard treatment for warfarin toxicity.

Choice B reason: Vitamin E has no role in reversing warfarin toxicity. It is an antioxidant with no effect on clotting factor synthesis or warfarin’s mechanism. Its use may be associated with bleeding risk in high doses, making it inappropriate for managing warfarin-induced gastrointestinal bleeding.

Choice C reason: Protamine sulfate reverses heparin, not warfarin. Heparin enhances antithrombin activity, and protamine neutralizes it. Warfarin’s effect on vitamin K-dependent factors is unrelated, and protamine has no impact on warfarin toxicity or gastrointestinal bleeding, making it an incorrect choice.

Choice D reason: Potassium chloride treats hypokalemia, not warfarin toxicity. Warfarin’s bleeding complications result from inhibited clotting factor synthesis, not electrolyte imbalances. Potassium chloride is irrelevant to reversing anticoagulation or managing gastrointestinal bleeding caused by excessive warfarin, making this an inappropriate treatment.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Resistance of pneumonia-causing bacteria does not cause vaginal yeast infections. Resistance reduces antibiotic efficacy against the target pathogen, but yeast infections result from disruption of vaginal flora, allowing Candida overgrowth, not from bacterial resistance in the lungs.

Choice B reason: Antibiotics, especially broad-spectrum ones, kill normal vaginal flora like Lactobacillus, which maintain an acidic environment inhibiting Candida albicans. This disruption allows yeast overgrowth, causing vaginal candidiasis, a common side effect of antibiotic therapy for infections like pneumonia, requiring antifungal treatment.

Choice C reason: Pneumonia pathogens do not spread to cause vaginal yeast infections. Candida, a fungal organism, causes yeast infections due to flora imbalance, not bacterial spread from the lungs. Pneumonia and vaginal infections have distinct etiologies, making this an incorrect cause.

Choice D reason: An allergic reaction to antibiotics may cause rashes or anaphylaxis but not vaginal yeast infections. Yeast infections result from microbial imbalance, not immune-mediated hypersensitivity. Candida overgrowth is a microbial, not allergic, response to antibiotic-induced flora disruption.

A. Albuterol is considered “long-acting” and salmeterol is considered “short-acting.” B. Albuterol is considered “short-acting” and salmeterol is considered “long-acting.” C. Salmeterol’s effects last for 3 to 4 hours, and albuterol has an extended duration of action up to 12 hours. D. Because of the onset of action, albuterol should not be used during an acute attack of asthma, but instead, salmeterol should be used.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Albuterol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA), with effects lasting 4-6 hours, while salmeterol is a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA), lasting up to 12 hours. This statement reverses their durations, making it incorrect, as albuterol is used for acute relief, not maintenance.

Choice B reason: Albuterol, a SABA, acts within minutes and lasts 4-6 hours, ideal for acute asthma relief. Salmeterol, a LABA, has a slower onset (20-30 minutes) and lasts 12 hours, used for maintenance. This pharmacodynamic difference in duration makes this the correct statement.

Choice C reason: Salmeterol’s effects last up to 12 hours, not 3-4 hours, and albuterol’s duration is 4-6 hours, not 12 hours. This statement inaccurately describes their pharmacodynamic profiles, as salmeterol is long-acting and albuterol is short-acting, making it incorrect.

Choice D reason: Albuterol’s rapid onset (within minutes) makes it ideal for acute asthma attacks, while salmeterol’s slow onset (20-30 minutes) makes it unsuitable for acute relief. This statement is incorrect, as albuterol, not salmeterol, is the first-line rescue medication for asthma exacerbations.

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A patient who has been anticoagulated with warfarin has been admitted for gastrointestinal bleeding. The history and physical examination indicate that the patient may have taken too much warfarin. The nurse anticipates that the patient will receive what treatment?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

During antibiotic therapy for pneumonia, a female patient develops a vaginal yeast infection. What caused this?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Which statement describes a pharmacodynamic difference between albuterol and salmeterol?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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