A patient who has heart failure. The patient complains of shortness of breath, and the nurse auscultates crackles in the lungs. The nurse understands that these symptoms are the result of

Poor medication compliance

Increased force of ventricular contraction

Decreased force of ventricular contraction

Lack of exercise

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Poor medication compliance may worsen heart failure but isn’t directly linked to crackles and shortness of breath. These symptoms result from fluid overload due to reduced cardiac output, not solely non-adherence. This choice is less specific to the physiological cause described.

Choice B reason: Increased ventricular contraction force, as with inotropes like digoxin, improves cardiac output, reducing fluid backup. Crackles and shortness of breath indicate fluid overload from poor heart function, not enhanced contraction, making this choice incorrect for the symptoms’ cause.

Choice C reason: Decreased ventricular contraction force in heart failure reduces cardiac output, causing blood to back up into the lungs, leading to pulmonary edema. This manifests as crackles and shortness of breath due to fluid accumulation, making this the correct physiological explanation for the symptoms.

Choice D reason: Lack of exercise may contribute to overall heart failure progression but doesn’t directly cause crackles and shortness of breath. These symptoms stem from acute fluid overload due to impaired cardiac pumping, not deconditioning, making this choice incorrect for the immediate cause.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Pentazocine is less effective for severe, chronic pain and has mixed agonist-antagonist effects. Fentanyl is stronger for opioid-tolerant patients, so this is incorrect.

Choice B reason: Hydrocodone is weaker than oxycodone and inadequate for severe, resistant pain. Fentanyl’s potency suits chronic cancer pain, so this is incorrect.

Choice C reason: Fentanyl transdermal is potent, long-acting, and ideal for severe, chronic cancer pain in opioid-tolerant patients. It’s appropriate here, making it the correct choice.

Choice D reason: Meperidine is not recommended for chronic pain due to neurotoxic metabolites. Fentanyl is safer and more effective, so this is incorrect.

A. The fetus must be monitored closely while the patient is taking this drug. B. The patient’s prescriber probably will change her medication to an ARB. C. The patient should stop taking the medication and contact her provider immediately. D. Assuming continue the medication with dose adjustment.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: ACE inhibitors are teratogenic, risking fetal harm, so monitoring while continuing is unsafe. Stopping the drug is critical, making this incorrect for safe pregnancy management.

Choice B reason: ARBs are also contraindicated in pregnancy due to similar teratogenic risks. Switching to an ARB is not safe, so this is incorrect compared to stopping the medication.

Choice C reason: ACE inhibitors can cause fetal abnormalities, so the patient must stop the medication and contact her provider immediately for safer alternatives. This is the correct action.

Choice D reason: Continuing ACE inhibitors, even adjusted, is dangerous in pregnancy due to teratogenicity. Immediate cessation and provider consultation are required, making this incorrect.

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A patient who has heart failure. The patient complains of shortness of breath, and the nurse auscultates crackles in the lungs. The nurse understands that these symptoms are the result of

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A cancer patient asks the nurse what can be given to alleviate severe, chronic pain of several months’ duration. The patient has been taking oxycodone (OxyContin) and states it is no longer effective. The nurse will suggest discussing which medication with the provider?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A female patient taking an ACE inhibitor learns that she is pregnant. What will the nurse tell this patient?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Name the imbalance using the following Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) values: pH 7.31, PaCO2 41, HCO3- 20

Which medication is indicated for suppression of cough? (Select all that apply)

N-acetyl-para-aminophenol is an example of which type of drug name?

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A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted for a procedure. If the patient’s blood pressure decreases, which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to see?

A patient reports becoming “immune” to a medication because it no longer works to alleviate symptoms. The nurse recognizes that this decreased effectiveness is likely caused by: