A patient tells the nurse that she takes aspirin for menstrual cramps, but she does not feel that it works well. What will the nurse suggest?
The patient should increase the dose until pain is controlled.
The patient should use a first-generation nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication instead.
The patient should use acetaminophen because of its anti-inflammatory effects.
The patient should avoid any type of COX inhibitor because of the risk of Reye’s syndrome.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Increasing aspirin dosage without medical guidance risks toxicity, including gastrointestinal bleeding and ulceration, as aspirin inhibits COX enzymes, reducing prostaglandin production. Prostaglandins mediate pain and inflammation, but excessive inhibition can damage the stomach lining. This approach is unsafe and not recommended for managing menstrual cramps effectively, as it may exacerbate adverse effects without ensuring better pain relief.
Choice B reason: First-generation NSAIDs, like ibuprofen, are more effective for menstrual cramps due to their stronger inhibition of COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes, which reduce prostaglandin synthesis responsible for uterine contractions and pain. Unlike aspirin, ibuprofen offers better pain relief with a more favorable dosing profile, making it a suitable alternative for dysmenorrhea management in most patients.
Choice C reason: Acetaminophen lacks significant anti-inflammatory effects, as it primarily inhibits COX enzymes in the central nervous system, not peripherally. It reduces pain and fever but does not effectively target prostaglandin-mediated inflammation in menstrual cramps. Therefore, it is less effective than NSAIDs like ibuprofen for dysmenorrhea, making it an inappropriate substitute in this context.
Choice D reason: Avoiding COX inhibitors due to Reye’s syndrome risk is unwarranted here, as Reye’s syndrome is primarily associated with aspirin use in children with viral infections. Menstrual cramps are unrelated to this condition, and COX inhibitors like NSAIDs are standard treatment. This choice is overly restrictive and not clinically justified for managing dysmenorrhea.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Opioid tolerance does not reduce constipation; it may persist or worsen. Tolerance primarily reduces pain relief, so this is incorrect for the effect.
Choice B reason: Respiratory depression risk may not increase with tolerance, as sensitivity to this effect also diminishes. Analgesia is most affected, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Euphoria typically decreases with tolerance, not increases, as receptor sensitivity drops. Reduced analgesia is the primary effect, so this is incorrect.
Choice D reason: Opioid tolerance leads to decreased analgesic effect, requiring higher doses for pain relief. This is the hallmark of tolerance, making it the correct choice.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Pentazocine is less effective for severe, chronic pain and has mixed agonist-antagonist effects. Fentanyl is stronger for opioid-tolerant patients, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: Hydrocodone is weaker than oxycodone and inadequate for severe, resistant pain. Fentanyl’s potency suits chronic cancer pain, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Fentanyl transdermal is potent, long-acting, and ideal for severe, chronic cancer pain in opioid-tolerant patients. It’s appropriate here, making it the correct choice.
Choice D reason: Meperidine is not recommended for chronic pain due to neurotoxic metabolites. Fentanyl is safer and more effective, so this is incorrect.
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