A patient tells the nurse that she takes aspirin for menstrual cramps, but she does not feel that it works well. What will the nurse suggest?
The patient should increase the dose until pain is controlled.
The patient should use a first-generation nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication instead.
The patient should use acetaminophen because of its anti-inflammatory effects.
The patient should avoid any type of COX inhibitor because of the risk of Reye’s syndrome.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Increasing aspirin dosage without medical guidance risks toxicity, including gastrointestinal bleeding and ulceration, as aspirin inhibits COX enzymes, reducing prostaglandin production. Prostaglandins mediate pain and inflammation, but excessive inhibition can damage the stomach lining. This approach is unsafe and not recommended for managing menstrual cramps effectively, as it may exacerbate adverse effects without ensuring better pain relief.
Choice B reason: First-generation NSAIDs, like ibuprofen, are more effective for menstrual cramps due to their stronger inhibition of COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes, which reduce prostaglandin synthesis responsible for uterine contractions and pain. Unlike aspirin, ibuprofen offers better pain relief with a more favorable dosing profile, making it a suitable alternative for dysmenorrhea management in most patients.
Choice C reason: Acetaminophen lacks significant anti-inflammatory effects, as it primarily inhibits COX enzymes in the central nervous system, not peripherally. It reduces pain and fever but does not effectively target prostaglandin-mediated inflammation in menstrual cramps. Therefore, it is less effective than NSAIDs like ibuprofen for dysmenorrhea, making it an inappropriate substitute in this context.
Choice D reason: Avoiding COX inhibitors due to Reye’s syndrome risk is unwarranted here, as Reye’s syndrome is primarily associated with aspirin use in children with viral infections. Menstrual cramps are unrelated to this condition, and COX inhibitors like NSAIDs are standard treatment. This choice is overly restrictive and not clinically justified for managing dysmenorrhea.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Respiratory acidosis has low pH and high PaCO2. High pH (7.47) and low PaCO2 (32) indicate alkalosis, not acidosis, so this incorrect.
Choice B reason: Metabolic acidosis has low pH and HCO3-. High pH and normal HCO3- (23) rule this out, pointing to respiratory alkalosis, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Metabolic alkalosis has high pH and high HCO3-.. Normal HCO3- and low PaCO2 indicate respiratory alkalosis, so this is incorrect.
Choice D reason: High pH (7.47) and low PaCO2 (32) with normal CO2 HCO3- confirm respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation. This is matches, so it’s correct.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Beta blockers decrease renin release, reducing angiotensin II and aldosterone, which lowers blood pressure. This statement is accurate, reflecting correct understanding, so it does not indicate a need for further teaching.
Choice B reason: Beta blockers do not primarily decrease peripheral vascular resistance; they reduce heart rate and contractility. Peripheral resistance is more affected by alpha blockers or vasodilators, so this incorrect statement indicates a need for further teaching.
Choice C reason: Beta blockers reduce heart rate and myocardial contractility, decreasing cardiac output and blood pressure. This statement is correct, showing proper understanding, so it does not require additional teaching.
Choice D reason: While beta blockers do not directly block angiotensin II, they reduce its production by decreasing renin. The statement is imprecise but not entirely wrong, making it less indicative of a teaching need than choice B.
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