A patient tells the nurse that she takes aspirin for menstrual cramps, but she does not feel that it works well. What will the nurse suggest?

The patient should increase the dose until pain is controlled.

The patient should use a first-generation nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication instead.

The patient should use acetaminophen because of its anti-inflammatory effects.

The patient should avoid any type of COX inhibitor because of the risk of Reye’s syndrome.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Increasing aspirin dosage without medical guidance risks toxicity, including gastrointestinal bleeding and ulceration, as aspirin inhibits COX enzymes, reducing prostaglandin production. Prostaglandins mediate pain and inflammation, but excessive inhibition can damage the stomach lining. This approach is unsafe and not recommended for managing menstrual cramps effectively, as it may exacerbate adverse effects without ensuring better pain relief.

Choice B reason: First-generation NSAIDs, like ibuprofen, are more effective for menstrual cramps due to their stronger inhibition of COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes, which reduce prostaglandin synthesis responsible for uterine contractions and pain. Unlike aspirin, ibuprofen offers better pain relief with a more favorable dosing profile, making it a suitable alternative for dysmenorrhea management in most patients.

Choice C reason: Acetaminophen lacks significant anti-inflammatory effects, as it primarily inhibits COX enzymes in the central nervous system, not peripherally. It reduces pain and fever but does not effectively target prostaglandin-mediated inflammation in menstrual cramps. Therefore, it is less effective than NSAIDs like ibuprofen for dysmenorrhea, making it an inappropriate substitute in this context.

Choice D reason: Avoiding COX inhibitors due to Reye’s syndrome risk is unwarranted here, as Reye’s syndrome is primarily associated with aspirin use in children with viral infections. Menstrual cramps are unrelated to this condition, and COX inhibitors like NSAIDs are standard treatment. This choice is overly restrictive and not clinically justified for managing dysmenorrhea.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: A sodium level of 140 mEq/L is within the normal range (135-145 mEq/L). While furosemide can cause hyponatremia, this value is not concerning. Hypokalemia is a greater risk with furosemide and digoxin, as it potentiates digoxin toxicity, making this choice less critical than potassium.

Choice B reason: Oxygen saturation of 95% is normal (95-100%). Crackles suggest pulmonary edema, but this saturation doesn’t indicate severe hypoxia requiring immediate action. Hypokalemia poses a greater risk with digoxin and furosemide, as it increases toxicity potential, making this choice less concerning.

Choice C reason: A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L (normal: 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) indicates hypokalemia, exacerbated by furosemide’s diuretic effect. In digoxin use, low potassium increases cardiac toxicity risk, causing arrhythmias, especially with an irregular heart rate noted, making this the most concerning value requiring immediate attention.

Choice D reason: A blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL is normal (70-110 mg/dL fasting). It’s unrelated to digoxin or furosemide’s primary risks (e.g., electrolyte imbalances, arrhythmias). Hypokalemia is a more immediate concern due to its synergistic toxicity with digoxin, making this choice less critical.

A. Monitor plasma drug levels B. Administer this medication intravenously C. Administer the drug at intervals longer than the drug half-life D. Teach the patient that maximum drug effects will occur within a short period

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Drugs with a narrow therapeutic range, like digoxin, require plasma level monitoring to ensure concentrations remain within a safe and effective range. This prevents toxicity (e.g., arrhythmias) or subtherapeutic effects, as small dose changes can significantly alter blood levels, making monitoring critical for patient safety and efficacy.

Choice B reason: Intravenous administration does not inherently address the risks of a narrow therapeutic range. While it ensures rapid delivery, it increases toxicity risk due to immediate bioavailability. Monitoring plasma levels is more critical than the route to maintain safe and effective drug concentrations, making this choice less appropriate.

Choice C reason: Administering at intervals longer than the half-life may lead to subtherapeutic levels for drugs with a narrow therapeutic range, reducing efficacy. Consistent dosing and plasma level monitoring are needed to maintain steady-state concentrations within the therapeutic window, making this choice incorrect for managing such drugs.

Choice D reason: Teaching that maximum effects occur quickly is inaccurate for most narrow therapeutic range drugs, which often require steady-state concentrations over time. Without monitoring, toxicity or inefficacy risks increase. Patient education should focus on adherence and monitoring, not rapid effects, making this choice inappropriate.

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A patient tells the nurse that she takes aspirin for menstrual cramps, but she does not feel that it works well. What will the nurse suggest?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A patient receives a drug that has a narrow therapeutic range. The nurse administering this medication will expect to do what?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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