A patient tells the nurse that she takes aspirin for menstrual cramps, but she does not feel that it works well. What will the nurse suggest?
The patient should increase the dose until pain is controlled.
The patient should use a first-generation nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medication instead.
The patient should use acetaminophen because of its anti-inflammatory effects.
The patient should avoid any type of COX inhibitor because of the risk of Reye’s syndrome.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Increasing aspirin dosage without medical guidance risks toxicity, including gastrointestinal bleeding and ulceration, as aspirin inhibits COX enzymes, reducing prostaglandin production. Prostaglandins mediate pain and inflammation, but excessive inhibition can damage the stomach lining. This approach is unsafe and not recommended for managing menstrual cramps effectively, as it may exacerbate adverse effects without ensuring better pain relief.
Choice B reason: First-generation NSAIDs, like ibuprofen, are more effective for menstrual cramps due to their stronger inhibition of COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes, which reduce prostaglandin synthesis responsible for uterine contractions and pain. Unlike aspirin, ibuprofen offers better pain relief with a more favorable dosing profile, making it a suitable alternative for dysmenorrhea management in most patients.
Choice C reason: Acetaminophen lacks significant anti-inflammatory effects, as it primarily inhibits COX enzymes in the central nervous system, not peripherally. It reduces pain and fever but does not effectively target prostaglandin-mediated inflammation in menstrual cramps. Therefore, it is less effective than NSAIDs like ibuprofen for dysmenorrhea, making it an inappropriate substitute in this context.
Choice D reason: Avoiding COX inhibitors due to Reye’s syndrome risk is unwarranted here, as Reye’s syndrome is primarily associated with aspirin use in children with viral infections. Menstrual cramps are unrelated to this condition, and COX inhibitors like NSAIDs are standard treatment. This choice is overly restrictive and not clinically justified for managing dysmenorrhea.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Enteral (oral) administration typically has slower absorption than intravenous routes due to first-pass metabolism in the liver and variable gastric emptying. While effective for many drugs, it’s not faster than parenteral routes, making this choice incorrect for describing the primary advantage of enteral administration.
Choice B reason: Some enteral drugs are inactivated by digestive enzymes or liver metabolism (first-pass effect), not prevented. Special formulations (e.g., enteric-coated) may protect drugs, but this isn’t a general advantage of the enteral route, which often faces enzymatic degradation, making this choice inaccurate.
Choice C reason: Enteral administration does not offer superior control of serum drug levels compared to intravenous routes, which provide precise dosing and immediate bioavailability. Oral drugs face variable absorption and first-pass metabolism, leading to less predictable levels, making this choice incorrect for enteral benefits.
Choice D reason: Enteral administration is safer (avoids injection risks like infection), less expensive (no need for sterile equipment), and more convenient (self-administered at home). These advantages make it preferable for many drugs, aligning with patient compliance and cost-effectiveness, making this the correct choice for the nurse’s response.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Checking blood sugar daily or more is appropriate for diabetes management with glipizide. This shows understanding, so it is not concerning and incorrect.
Choice B reason: Moderate alcohol (e.g., one glass of wine) is generally safe with glipizide if blood sugar is controlled. This is less concerning than grapefruit, so it’s incorrect.
Choice C reason: Taking glipizide once daily with breakfast is correct, as it enhances insulin release with meals. This is appropriate, so it is not concerning and incorrect.
Choice D reason: Grapefruit juice can inhibit CYP enzymes, potentially increasing glipizide levels and hypoglycemia risk. This misunderstanding is dangerous, making it the correct concerning statement.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.