A patient with a history of hypertension is admitted for a procedure. If the patient’s blood pressure decreases, which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to see?
Decreased heart rate
Erythema
Increased temperature
Increased heart rate
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Decreased blood pressure triggers the baroreceptor reflex, increasing sympathetic activity to raise heart rate and vasoconstriction to restore pressure. A decreased heart rate would occur with increased blood pressure, not hypotension, as parasympathetic activation dominates. This choice is incorrect as it opposes the body’s compensatory response to low blood pressure.
Choice B reason: Erythema, or skin redness, results from vasodilation or inflammation, not directly from hypotension. While compensatory vasoconstriction occurs in hypotension, it reduces skin perfusion, potentially causing pallor, not erythema. This manifestation is unrelated to the cardiovascular response to decreased blood pressure, making this choice incorrect.
Choice C reason: Increased temperature is not a direct response to decreased blood pressure. Hypotension triggers sympathetic activation, prioritizing heart rate and vasoconstriction to maintain perfusion. Temperature changes may occur in shock states, but they’re not primary manifestations of routine hypotension, making this choice irrelevant to the expected clinical response.
Choice D reason: Decreased blood pressure activates the baroreceptor reflex, stimulating sympathetic nervous system activity. This increases heart rate (tachycardia) to enhance cardiac output, compensating for low pressure to maintain tissue perfusion. This is a primary physiological response to hypotension, making it the correct clinical manifestation expected in this scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Pulse oximetry of 95% is near normal and not a major concern for beta agonist administration. Tachycardia is more critical due to cardiac stimulation, so this is incorrect.
Choice B reason: A respiratory rate of 22 is slightly elevated but acceptable in respiratory conditions. Beta agonists target airways, but tachycardia is a greater risk, making this incorrect.
Choice C reason: Blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg is low, but beta agonists primarily affect heart rate. A pre-existing tachycardia is more concerning contraindication, so this is incorrect.
Choice D reason: A heart rate of 120 beats/min is concerning, as beta agonists increase heart rate, risking arrhythmias. This requires evaluation before administration, making it the correct concern.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Lipid-soluble drugs cross cell membranes quickly due to their affinity for lipid bilayers, leading to predictable, rapid absorption. Their onset is not unpredictable but typically faster than water-soluble drugs, especially via routes like intravenous or transdermal, making this choice incorrect for lipid-soluble drugs.
Choice B reason: Lipid-soluble drugs, like fentanyl, rapidly cross lipid-rich cell membranes, including the blood-brain barrier, leading to quick onset of action. This is due to their high partition coefficient, allowing fast diffusion into tissues, making rapid effect onset the correct expectation for the nurse.
Choice C reason: Lipid-soluble drugs have faster onset than water-soluble drugs due to easier membrane penetration. Slow effects are more typical of water-soluble or poorly absorbed drugs. Lipid solubility enhances rapid distribution and action, making this choice incorrect for the expected effect timeline.
Choice D reason: Osmosis refers to water movement across membranes, not drug absorption. Lipid-soluble drugs diffuse through lipid bilayers, not via osmosis, which is irrelevant to their pharmacokinetics. This choice is scientifically inaccurate for describing the onset of lipid-soluble drug effects.
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