A patient with type 1 diabetes reports mixing NPH and regular insulin to allow for one injection. The nurse knows:

NPH insulin should only be mixed with insulin glargine

These two forms of insulin are not compatible and cannot be mixed

Mixing these two forms of insulin may increase the overall potency of the products

This is an acceptable practice

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: NPH insulin is not mixed with insulin glargine, as glargine’s pH and formulation cause precipitation or altered pharmacokinetics when combined. NPH can be mixed with regular insulin, as they are compatible, making this choice incorrect for the patient’s reported practice.

Choice B reason: NPH and regular insulin are compatible and routinely mixed in one syringe to provide both intermediate and short-acting coverage. They don’t react chemically or lose efficacy when combined properly, making this choice incorrect, as mixing is a standard practice in diabetes management.

Choice C reason: Mixing NPH and regular insulin does not increase potency; it combines their pharmacokinetics for basal and prandial glucose control. The mixture delivers the additive effects of each insulin’s profile without enhancing overall potency, making this choice inaccurate for their combined action.

Choice D reason: Mixing NPH (intermediate-acting) and regular insulin (short-acting) is an accepted practice to manage type 1 diabetes with one injection, covering basal and prandial needs. Proper technique (drawing regular insulin first) ensures stability, making this the correct choice for the patient’s reported insulin administration.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Nonselective agonists activate multiple receptors, not specific ones, leading to widespread effects. Specific processes are targeted by selective agonists, so this is incorrect for nonselective drugs.

Choice B reason: Nonselective agonists activate, not prevent, receptors. Prevention is the role of antagonists, so this is incorrect for a nonselective agonist’s mechanism of action.

Choice C reason: Nonselective agonists activate multiple receptor types, affecting many physiologic processes (e.g., epinephrine). This broad action is their hallmark, making it the correct choice for the drug’s effect.

Choice D reason: Preventing receptor activation describes antagonists, not agonists. Nonselective agonists stimulate multiple processes, so this is incorrect for the drug’s pharmacological action.

A. Intravenous theophylline, oxygen, and fluticasone [Flovent HFA] 220 mcg B. Four puffs of albuterol, oxygen, and intravenous theophylline C. Intravenous glucocorticoids, nebulized albuterol and ipratropium, and oxygen D. Intramuscular glucocorticoids and salmeterol by metered-dose inhaler

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Theophylline is rarely used due to toxicity risks and less efficacy compared to beta-agonists. Increasing fluticasone dose doesn’t address acute exacerbations, as inhaled corticosteroids act slowly. Oxygen is appropriate, but this regimen lacks rapid-acting bronchodilators, making it inadequate for acute asthma management.

Choice B reason: Four puffs of albuterol via inhaler may be insufficient for severe asthma (90% saturation, wheezes). Theophylline is outdated, and nebulized treatments are more effective in emergencies. Oxygen is needed, but this combination lacks systemic steroids for inflammation, making it less optimal.

Choice C reason: Intravenous glucocorticoids reduce airway inflammation rapidly, nebulized albuterol and ipratropium provide synergistic bronchodilation, and oxygen corrects hypoxia (90% saturation). This aligns with guidelines for acute asthma exacerbations, addressing inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and oxygenation, making it the correct and comprehensive treatment choice.

Choice D reason: Intramuscular glucocorticoids are slower than intravenous for acute asthma. Salmeterol, a long-acting beta-agonist, is inappropriate for acute exacerbations, as it lacks rapid onset. Oxygen is needed, but this regimen doesn’t address immediate bronchoconstriction effectively, making it incorrect for emergency management.

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A patient with type 1 diabetes reports mixing NPH and regular insulin to allow for one injection. The nurse knows:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is preparing to administer a medication and learns that it is a nonselective agonist. What does the nurse understand about this drug?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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