Name the imbalance using the following Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) values:
pH 7.32, PaCO2 <37, HCO3- <24
Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
Partially compensated respiratory acidosis
Partially compensated metabolic acidosis
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: pH 7.32 (low, acidic), PaCO2 <37 mm Hg (normal/low), and HCO3- <24 mEq/L (low) indicate metabolic acidosis, as low bicarbonate causes acidosis without respiratory compensation (PaCO2 normal). This matches uncompensated metabolic acidosis, often due to conditions like lactic acidosis or diabetic ketoacidosis, making this the correct choice.
Choice B reason: Uncompensated respiratory acidosis involves elevated PaCO2 (>45 mm Hg) causing low pH, with normal HCO3-. Here, PaCO2 is <37 mm Hg (normal/low) and HCO3- is low, pointing to a metabolic, not respiratory, cause of acidosis, making this choice incorrect for the given ABG values.
Choice C reason: Partially compensated respiratory acidosis requires elevated PaCO2 and increased HCO3- as compensation. Here, PaCO2 is <37 mm Hg (normal/low) and HCO3- is low, ruling out respiratory acidosis. The low pH and low HCO3- indicate a metabolic cause, making this choice incorrect.
Choice D reason: Partially compensated metabolic acidosis involves low pH, low HCO3-, and decreased PaCO2 as respiratory compensation. While HCO3- is low, PaCO2 is not significantly reduced to indicate compensation (given as <37 mm Hg, likely normal). This suggests uncompensated metabolic acidosis, making this choice less accurate than A.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Taking antihistamines only with symptoms may reduce side effects but provides inconsistent relief, as histamine levels fluctuate. Daily use during allergy seasons prevents symptom onset, offering better control, especially for second-generation antihistamines with longer action, making this choice less effective.
Choice B reason: First-generation antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine) are sedating and have more side effects than second-generation (e.g., loratadine), which are equally effective for allergies but less sedating. Claiming first-generation are more effective is incorrect, as second-generation are preferred, making this choice inaccurate.
Choice C reason: Anticholinergic effects (e.g., dry mouth) are more common with first-generation antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine) due to non-selective receptor binding. Second-generation antihistamines (e.g., cetirizine) are more selective for H1 receptors, reducing these effects, making this choice incorrect and opposite to pharmacological profiles.
Choice D reason: Daily oral antihistamines, especially second-generation (e.g., loratadine), during allergy seasons maintain steady histamine receptor blockade, preventing symptoms like sneezing and itching. This maximizes efficacy and improves quality of life, aligning with guidelines for seasonal allergies, making this the correct nurse response.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: A transporter shell is not a pharmacological concept; drugs use transport proteins or diffusion. Membrane crossing is key, so this is incorrect for drug movement.
Choice B reason: Selectivity and effectiveness define therapeutic action, not physical movement. Drugs must cross membranes to reach targets, so this is incorrect.
Choice C reason: Drugs must cross cell membranes to move through the body, affecting absorption and distribution. This is a fundamental requirement, making it the correct choice.
Choice D reason: An electric charge may influence solubility but isn’t required for movement. Membrane permeability is essential, so this is incorrect for drug pharmacokinetics.
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