A patient who has numbness and weakness of both feet is hospitalized with Guillain- Barré syndrome. The nurse will anticipate that collaborative interventions at this time will include ...
intubation and mechanical ventilation.
IV infusion of (Sandoglobulin).
administration of methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol).
insertion of a nasogastric (NG) feeding tube
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale: Intubation and mechanical ventilation may be needed if the respiratory muscles are affected by GBS, but this is not a routine intervention at this stage.
Choice B rationale: One of the main treatments of GBS is IV immunoglobulin therapy (IVIG), which involves infusing antibodies from donated blood plasma to block the harmful immune response that damages the nerves. Sandoglobulin is one of the brand names of IVIG used for GBS. IVIG can help shorten the duration and severity of the disease, and improve the recovery rate.
Choice C rationale: Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid that can reduce inflammation, but it is not recommended for GBS, as it may worsen the condition or increase the risk of infection.
Choice D rationale: NG feeding tube may be required if the patient has difficulty swallowing, but this is also not a standard intervention at this time.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This may indicate a different condition such as gastroenteritis rather than Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome (HHNS).
Choice B rationale: This is more indicative of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) rather than HHNS.
Choice C rationale: A 72-year-old with a history of diabetes, elevated blood glucose, and complaints of thirst and frequent urination might have uncontrolled diabetes, but the absence of severe hyperglycemia and other symptoms specific to HHNS makes this choice less likely.
Choice D rationale: This fits the criteria for HHNS. The infection, missed medication, and extremely high blood glucose levels suggest the possibility of Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Cerebral motor cortex primarily controls voluntary movements, not autonomic functions like respiration, heart rate, and blood pressure.
Choice B rationale: The brain stem controls vital functions like respiration, heart rate, and blood pressure, so damage to this area can lead to difficulties in these functions.
Choice C rationale: Broca's area is responsible for speech production and is not directly involved in autonomic functions.
Choice D rationale: The occipital lobe is primarily associated with visual processing and perception, not autonomic functions like respiration or heart rate.
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