A patient who has numbness and weakness of both feet is hospitalized with Guillain- Barré syndrome. The nurse will anticipate that collaborative interventions at this time will include ...
intubation and mechanical ventilation.
IV infusion of (Sandoglobulin).
administration of methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol).
insertion of a nasogastric (NG) feeding tube
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale: Intubation and mechanical ventilation may be needed if the respiratory muscles are affected by GBS, but this is not a routine intervention at this stage.
Choice B rationale: One of the main treatments of GBS is IV immunoglobulin therapy (IVIG), which involves infusing antibodies from donated blood plasma to block the harmful immune response that damages the nerves. Sandoglobulin is one of the brand names of IVIG used for GBS. IVIG can help shorten the duration and severity of the disease, and improve the recovery rate.
Choice C rationale: Methylprednisolone is a corticosteroid that can reduce inflammation, but it is not recommended for GBS, as it may worsen the condition or increase the risk of infection.
Choice D rationale: NG feeding tube may be required if the patient has difficulty swallowing, but this is also not a standard intervention at this time.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This is a possible sign of TBI but is not necessarily indicative of a life- threatening condition.
Choice B rationale: This is a possible sign of TBI but is not necessarily indicative of a life- threatening condition.
Choice C rationale: This is a possible sign of TBI but is not necessarily indicative of a life- threatening condition.
Choice D rationale: Serosanguineous nasal drainage (a mixture of blood and clear fluid) may suggest a basilar skull fracture, which is a fracture of the base of the skull that can damage vital structures such as the brainstem, cranial nerves, or major blood vessels. This can lead to serious complications such as meningitis, cerebrospinal fluid leak, or hemorrhage.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale: While joint deformities are concerning in RA, the immediate attention would be required for an acute, red, hot, swollen joint which could indicate an active inflammatory process.
Choice B rationale: Redness, heat, and swelling in a joint are signs of an acute flare in rheumatoid arthritis and might require urgent intervention to manage the inflammation.
Choice C rationale: Puffy-looking areas behind the knee might indicate joint involvement but might not require immediate attention as much as an acutely inflamed joint.
Choice D rationale: Jaw pain while eating can be a symptom of TMJ involvement in RA, but an acutely inflamed joint would generally take precedence.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
