A patient with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM dose of ceftriaxone and is given a prescription for azithromycin (Zithromax) 1000 mg 1 dose. What rationale should the nurse provide to the patient for this combination?

Provides coverage for possible trichomonas infection.

Prevent reinfection during treatment.

Treat any coexisting syphilis infection.

Provides coverage for possible chlamydia infection.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale: The combination treats gonorrhea and chlamydia but not trichomonas.

Choice B rationale: While important, this combination aims to treat multiple potential infections, not solely prevent reinfection.

Choice C rationale: The dual therapy doesn’t cover syphilis; it's specifically targeted for gonorrhea and chlamydia.

Choice D rationale: Azithromycin covers both gonorrhea and chlamydia, so the combination ensures coverage for both possible infections.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale: A calcium level of 8.6 mg/dL is within the normal range.

Choice B rationale: An elevated white blood cell count (WBC) of 19,000 mm3 indicates a potential infection or inflammatory process, requiring immediate attention, especially in a client receiving peritoneal dialysis.

Choice C rationale: A serum pH of 7.33 is within the normal range.

Choice D rationale: A hemoglobin level of 9 mg/dL might indicate anemia, but in a client receiving dialysis, it might not require immediate reporting unless it significantly drops further.

A. Tachycardia, decreased pedal pulses B. Muscle weakness, Diarrhea, dizziness C. Decreased level of consciousness, irregular muscle twitching D. Jaundice skin, hypotension, bradycardia

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale: These side effects are not related to spironolactone use.

Choice B rationale: These are common side effects of spironolactone, as it causes potassium retention and sodium loss.

Choice C rationale: These side effects are not related to spironolactone use.

Choice D rationale: These side effects are not related to spironolactone use.

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A patient with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM dose of ceftriaxone and is given a prescription for azithromycin (Zithromax) 1000 mg 1 dose. What rationale should the nurse provide to the patient for this combination?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is assessing a client receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which laboratory result should immediately be reported to the primary healthcare provider (PHCP)?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Spironolactone (Aldactone) is prescribed for a client with chronic cirrhosis and ascites. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following medication-related side effects?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is caring for a 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and persistent nausea/vomiting Exhibits here What condition the client is most likely experiencing?

While assessing a male client, a nurse observes that the client has a small penis, long legs, short trunk, enlarged breast tissues, small testicles, and sexual dysfunction. What diagnosis does the nurse suspect from these findings?

The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) receiving intravenous (IV) regular insulin. The most recent potassium was 2.9 mEq/L. The nurse should take which priority action:

A patient with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM dose of ceftriaxone and is given a prescription for azithromycin (Zithromax) 1000 mg 1 dose. What rationale should the nurse provide to the patient for this combination?

A client has received vasopressin for diabetes insipidus. Which assessment finding indicates the most therapeutic response to this therapy?

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