A patient with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM dose of ceftriaxone and is given a prescription for azithromycin (Zithromax) 1000 mg 1 dose. What rationale should the nurse provide to the patient for this combination?
Provides coverage for possible trichomonas infection.
Prevent reinfection during treatment.
Treat any coexisting syphilis infection.
Provides coverage for possible chlamydia infection.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale: The combination treats gonorrhea and chlamydia but not trichomonas.
Choice B rationale: While important, this combination aims to treat multiple potential infections, not solely prevent reinfection.
Choice C rationale: The dual therapy doesn’t cover syphilis; it's specifically targeted for gonorrhea and chlamydia.
Choice D rationale: Azithromycin covers both gonorrhea and chlamydia, so the combination ensures coverage for both possible infections.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: This is a normal value, indicating normal renal function. The client does not have any signs of kidney damage or impairment.
Choice B rationale: This is an elevated value, indicating an infection or inflammation in the body. Acute appendicitis is a common cause of increased white blood cells, as the appendix becomes inflamed and infected. This finding requires immediate follow-up to monitor the client's condition and prevent complications such as perforation or peritonitis.
Choice C rationale: This is a high value, indicating impaired renal function or dehydration. The client may have decreased urine output due to vomiting and fluid loss, or may have underlying kidney problems. This finding requires immediate follow-up to assess the client's hydration status and renal function, and to provide appropriate fluid and electrolyte replacement.
Choice D rationale: This is a sign of peritoneal irritation, which may indicate that the appendix has ruptured or is close to rupturing. This is a medical emergency that requires immediate surgical intervention to remove the appendix and prevent sepsis and shock.
Choice E rationale: This is a low value, indicating hypokalemia or low potassium levels in the blood. The client may have lost potassium due to vomiting and fluid loss, or may have underlying electrolyte imbalances. This finding requires immediate follow-up to assess the client's cardiac function and muscle strength, and to provide appropriate potassium supplementation.
Choice F rationale: These are common symptoms of acute appendicitis, as the inflammation and infection of the appendix cause irritation of the gastrointestinal tract. These symptoms do not require immediate follow-up, but they should be managed with antiemetics and fluids to prevent dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Typically associated with potassium depletion rather than elevated levels.
Choice B rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium depletion leading to hypokalemia, but it might also cause transient elevations in potassium levels initially. Choice C rationale: Addison disease can cause hyperkalemia, or high potassium, due to decreased renal excretion of potassium and increased retention of sodium and water.
Choice D rationale: Cushing disease can cause hypokalemia, or low potassium, due to increased renal excretion of potassium and decreased reabsorption of sodium and water.
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