A patient with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM dose of ceftriaxone and is given a prescription for azithromycin (Zithromax) 1000 mg 1 dose. What rationale should the nurse provide to the patient for this combination?
Provides coverage for possible trichomonas infection.
Prevent reinfection during treatment.
Treat any coexisting syphilis infection.
Provides coverage for possible chlamydia infection.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale: The combination treats gonorrhea and chlamydia but not trichomonas.
Choice B rationale: While important, this combination aims to treat multiple potential infections, not solely prevent reinfection.
Choice C rationale: The dual therapy doesn’t cover syphilis; it's specifically targeted for gonorrhea and chlamydia.
Choice D rationale: Azithromycin covers both gonorrhea and chlamydia, so the combination ensures coverage for both possible infections.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"D"}
Explanation
Choice A rationale: The lab results and clinical picture, such as weight loss, anorexia, and high blood glucose levels, point more toward a hyperglycemic state rather than severe hypoglycemia.
Choice B rationale: The client's elevated blood glucose levels, weight loss, and anorexia suggest a hyperglycemic state, possibly hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state, which requires fluid management and insulin to address the severe dehydration and high blood glucose levels.
Choice C rationale: Although high glucose levels are evident, the absence of significant acidosis (as seen in diabetic ketoacidosis) and extreme ketosis makes this diagnosis less likely.
Choice D rationale: The lab values and clinical presentation do not strongly align with a primary respiratory acidosis diagnosis, which typically involves changes in pH and carbon dioxide levels.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Although important to assess for potential kidney injury, addressing hypotension due to potential spinal shock takes priority.
Choice B rationale: Important for determining any neurological deficits, but addressing hypotension is the initial priority.
Choice C rationale: Hypotension indicates potential spinal shock or hemorrhagic shock, and fluid resuscitation is the immediate priority to stabilize the client's blood pressure.
Choice D rationale: While important for assessing cardiac status, addressing hypotension takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition.
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