A patient with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM dose of ceftriaxone and is given a prescription for azithromycin (Zithromax) 1000 mg 1 dose. What rationale should the nurse provide to the patient for this combination?

Provides coverage for possible trichomonas infection.

Prevent reinfection during treatment.

Treat any coexisting syphilis infection.

Provides coverage for possible chlamydia infection.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale: The combination treats gonorrhea and chlamydia but not trichomonas.

Choice B rationale: While important, this combination aims to treat multiple potential infections, not solely prevent reinfection.

Choice C rationale: The dual therapy doesn’t cover syphilis; it's specifically targeted for gonorrhea and chlamydia.

Choice D rationale: Azithromycin covers both gonorrhea and chlamydia, so the combination ensures coverage for both possible infections.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale: Adenomas are benign tumors that originate from glandular tissue, such as the endometrium, the inner lining of the uterus.

Choice B rationale: Leiomyomas, also known as fibroids, are benign tumors that arise from the smooth muscle cells of the myometrium, the middle layer of the uterine wall. They are the most common type of uterine tumors, affecting up to 80% of women by age 50. They can cause symptoms such as heavy menstrual bleeding, pelvic pain, pressure, and infertility.

Choice C rationale: Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus, causing inflammation and pain.

Choice D rationale: Adenomyosis is a condition where endometrial tissue invades the myometrium, causing enlargement and distortion of the uterus.

A. the patient must receive insulin therapy to prevent ketoacidosis B. the patient has islet cell antibodies that have destroyed the pancreas's ability to produce insulin C. the patient may have sufficient endogenous insulin to prevent ketosis but is at risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome D. the patient has minimal or absent endogenous insulin secretion and requires daily insulin injections

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale: The patient with type 2 diabetes admitted with pneumonia might not necessarily need insulin therapy to prevent ketoacidosis.

Choice B rationale: Type 2 diabetes doesn't typically involve islet cell antibodies destroying the pancreas's ability to produce insulin.

Choice C rationale: In this scenario, the patient might have enough endogenous insulin to prevent ketosis but could be at risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome due to illness-induced stress.

Choice D rationale: Type 2 diabetes often involves some degree of endogenous insulin secretion, and not all patients require daily insulin injections.

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A patient with gonorrhea is treated with a single IM dose of ceftriaxone and is given a prescription for azithromycin (Zithromax) 1000 mg 1 dose. What rationale should the nurse provide to the patient for this combination?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A 40-year-old female presents with cramping and excessive vaginal bleeding. Ultrasound reveals benign uterine tumors in the smooth muscle cells of the myometrium. These tumors are commonly called:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Which statement would be correct for a patient with type 2 diabetes who was admitted to the hospital with pneumonia?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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