A patient who is experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath is brought to the emergency department.
The nurse assesses a heart rate of 98 beats per minute, bilateral lung crackles, and an oxygen saturation of 90%. What will the nurse expect to administer initially to this patient?
Albuterol (Proventil)
Oxygen
Nitroglycerin
Aspirin
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Albuterol (Proventil) is a bronchodilator that is used to treat acute asthma attacks and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). It works by relaxing the smooth muscles in the airways, which allows more air to flow into the lungs. While albuterol can be helpful in relieving shortness of breath, it is not the first-line treatment for a patient with chest pain and low oxygen saturation. This is because albuterol does not address the underlying cause of the chest pain, which is likely a lack of oxygen to the heart muscle.
Choice C rationale:
Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that is used to treat angina (chest pain) and heart failure. It works by relaxing the blood vessels, which allows more blood to flow to the heart. Nitroglycerin can be helpful in relieving chest pain, but it is not the first-line treatment for a patient with low oxygen saturation. This is because nitroglycerin can actually worsen hypoxemia (low oxygen levels in the blood) by dilating blood vessels in the lungs.
Choice D rationale:
Aspirin is a blood thinner that is used to prevent and treat blood clots. It is often given to patients with chest pain who are suspected of having a heart attack. However, aspirin is not the first-line treatment for a patient with low oxygen saturation. This is because aspirin does not address the underlying cause of the low oxygen saturation, which is likely a problem with the lungs or heart.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale for A:
Regular insulin is the only insulin formulation that can be safely administered intravenously. It is a rapid-acting insulin that starts working within 15 minutes and peaks in 1-2 hours, making it ideal for urgent glucose control in situations like diabetic ketoacidosis.
NPH insulin is an intermediate-acting insulin that is not suitable for IV administration. It is designed to be absorbed slowly over several hours, and injecting it intravenously could lead to unpredictable and potentially dangerous fluctuations in blood glucose levels.
Subcutaneous (SQ) injection is the standard route of administration for both regular and NPH insulin outside of acute care settings. This route allows for a more gradual and consistent absorption of insulin, which is essential for maintaining stable blood glucose control.
The patient's transfer to the med/surg unit indicates that their condition has stabilized and no longer requires the aggressive glucose control that is achieved with an IV insulin infusion. Therefore, it is appropriate to transition them to SQ insulin injections.
Rationale for B:
While mixing insulins can potentially alter their absorption rates and action profiles, the primary concern with mixing NPH and regular insulin is not an increased risk of hypoglycemia. It is the incompatibility of the formulations for IV administration.
Rationale for C:
NPH and regular insulin can be mixed together for subcutaneous injection, but they are not compatible for intravenous administration.
Rationale for D:
While NPH insulin can be administered as part of an IV insulin drip in the ICU, this is typically done in specific situations where a continuous infusion of both rapid-acting and intermediate-acting insulin is required. It is not the standard practice for NPH insulin administration.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Glipizide does not directly enhance glucose transport into the muscles. This action is primarily mediated by insulin, which increases the expression of glucose transporter proteins (GLUT4) on muscle cell membranes, facilitating glucose uptake.
While glipizide can indirectly improve glucose transport into muscles by increasing insulin levels, it's not the primary mechanism of action.
Choice B rationale:
Glipizide does not directly facilitate glucose utilization by body cells. This process also largely depends on insulin, which activates intracellular pathways that promote glucose metabolism and energy production.
Although glipizide can indirectly enhance glucose utilization by increasing insulin availability, it's not the main mechanism responsible for its glucose-lowering effects.
Choice C rationale:
Glipizide does not boost glucose levels. In fact, it has the opposite effect, lowering blood glucose levels by stimulating insulin secretion.
Elevating glucose levels would be counterproductive in diabetes management, as the goal is to maintain blood glucose within a healthy range.
Choice D rationale (correct answer):
Glipizide belongs to a class of medications called sulfonylureas, which act primarily by stimulating insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells.
Insulin is a hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating blood glucose levels. It promotes glucose uptake by various tissues, including muscles, liver, and adipose tissue, and it inhibits glucose production by the liver.
By triggering insulin release, glipizide effectively lowers blood glucose levels. This helps to prevent the long-term complications of diabetes, such as damage to blood vessels, nerves, and organs.
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