A patient with musculoskeletal trauma asks the nurse about the difference between a strain and a sprain. Which of the following is a correct statement?

Strains are associated with fractured bone that are tearing blood vessels

"A strain should be treated with heat In the first 24 hours then ice after

A sprain involves stretching or searing or tearing of ligaments at a joint

A sprain involves tearing of a muscle body or tendon

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) Strains are associated with fractured bone that are tearing blood vessels:
Strains refer to injuries of muscles or tendons due to overuse, overstretching, or tearing. A strain does not typically involve fractured bones or tearing blood vessels. Sprains, on the other hand, involve ligaments, not muscles or tendons, and may or may not involve fractures or tearing of blood vessels.

B) "A strain should be treated with heat in the first 24 hours then ice after:
. The general recommendation for the initial treatment of a strain (and sprain) is rest, ice, compression, and elevation (R.I.C.E.) within the first 24-48 hours. Ice should be applied during this period to reduce swelling and inflammation, not heat. Heat may be used after the first 48 hours to promote healing and reduce muscle stiffness, but it should not be used during the acute phase of the injury.

C) A sprain involves stretching or tearing or tearing of ligaments at a joint:
This is the correct statement. A sprain is an injury to a ligament, which is the tissue connecting bones to other bones. It is typically caused by stretching, overextension, or tearing of the ligament, often resulting from a sudden or awkward movement at a joint. Sprains commonly occur at areas such as the ankle, knee, and wrist.

D) A sprain involves tearing of a muscle body or tendon:
. A sprain involves damage to a ligament, not a muscle or tendon. Damage to muscles or tendons is classified as a strain, not a sprain. Strains refer to overuse or tearing of muscle fibers or tendons, not ligaments.

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Correct Answer is ["7"]

Explanation

Given:

Desired dose: Amoxicillin 350 mg PO

Available concentration: Amoxicillin 250 mg/5 ml

To find:

Volume to administer (in ml)

Step 1: Set up the proportion

We can use the following proportion to solve the problem:

(Desired dose) / (Available concentration) = Volume to administer

Step 2: Substitute the values

Plugging in the given values, we get:

(350 mg) / (250 mg/5 ml) = Volume to administer

Step 3: Simplify

To simplify, we can invert the denominator and multiply:

(350 mg) x (5 ml / 250 mg) = Volume to administer

The "mg" units cancel out, leaving us with:

(350 x 5 ml) / 250 = Volume to administer

Step 4: Calculate

Performing the multiplication and division, we get:

1750 ml / 250 = Volume to administer

1 ml = Volume to administer

A. Pernicious anemia B. Blood loss anemia C. Sickle cell anemia D. Aplastic anemia

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Pernicious anemia:
Pernicious anemia is primarily caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12, often due to a lack of intrinsic factor needed for absorption in the gut. It typically presents with symptoms like weakness, fatigue, and neurological manifestations such as numbness or tingling. However, the client’s presentation does not suggest a vitamin B12 deficiency or neurological signs. Additionally, pernicious anemia is not typically associated with heavy menstrual periods,
which are more indicative of blood loss anemia.

B. Blood loss anemia:
Blood loss anemia is the most likely diagnosis in this case, especially in the context of heavy menstrual periods, which can cause significant blood loss over time. The client’s hemoglobin level of 6.9 g/dL indicates severe anemia, which is consistent with the cumulative effects of chronic blood loss. This type of anemia results from a decrease in red blood cell count due to bleeding, which can lead to symptoms like weakness, fatigue, and pallor.

C. Sickle cell anemia:
Sickle cell anemia is a genetic condition characterized by abnormally shaped red blood cells, which can lead to hemolysis and episodes of pain. While it can cause symptoms like fatigue and weakness, sickle cell anemia typically presents earlier in life and is more associated with episodes of severe pain and organ damage. Additionally, the patient’s history does not mention episodes of pain or other hallmark signs of sickle cell disease, such as swelling in the hands or feet or recurrent infections.

D. Aplastic anemia:
Aplastic anemia occurs when the bone marrow fails to produce enough blood cells, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. It presents with symptoms like weakness, fatigue, frequent infections, and bruising. Although this client does have anemia, the lack of additional signs (such as petechiae, infections, or bleeding) makes this diagnosis less likely. Aplastic anemia is also usually diagnosed with bone marrow biopsy, which is not suggested by this client's presentation.

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A patient with musculoskeletal trauma asks the nurse about the difference between a strain and a sprain. Which of the following is a correct statement?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin 350 mg PO. Available is amoxicillin 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest whole number.)

Correct Answer is ["7"]

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a young female adult client who reports weakness, fatigue, and heavy menstrual periods. The client has a hemoglobin level of 6.9 g/dL. The nurse suspects which of the following types of anemia?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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