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A patient with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse about the duration of use for the prescribed eye drops. What is the nurse’s accurate response?

For long-term control of pain and swelling.

Until a smaller angle can be restored.

Until the excess pressure is reduced.

For long-term control of normal eye pressure.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A rationale

Eye drops for glaucoma are not typically used for long-term control of pain and swelling.

Choice B rationale

Restoring a smaller angle is not the goal of treatment for open-angle glaucoma.

Choice C rationale

While reducing excess pressure is a goal of glaucoma treatment, eye drops are typically used for long-term control rather than a temporary reduction of pressure.

Choice D rationale

Eye drops for open-angle glaucoma are used for long-term control of normal eye pressure. They need to be used every day, and depending on the type of medicine, may need to be used once, twice, or up to 4 times a day.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

The best time to take ferrous sulfate is not necessarily at bedtime. It’s more important that the medication is taken on an empty stomach.

Choice B rationale

Crushing the tablets is not recommended. Enteric-coated tablets should be swallowed whole.

Choice C rationale

Ferrous sulfate is best absorbed on an empty stomach. The patient should wait for 2 hours after meals before taking the tablet to promote the best absorption of the medication.

Choice D rationale

Taking the tablet with a daily multivitamin is not typically recommended. Some vitamins and minerals can interfere with the absorption of ferrous sulfate.

A. One hour after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next administration of the medication. B. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and two hours before the next administration of the medication. C. Thirty minutes into the administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication. D. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is D. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration of the medication.

Explanation:

Peak levels measure the highest concentration of the drug in the bloodstream and should be drawn immediately after the IV infusion is completed.
Trough levels measure the lowest concentration of the drug and should be drawn 30 minutes before the next scheduled dose. This helps ensure the drug remains within therapeutic levels and prevents toxicity.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. One hour after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next administration – Waiting one hour for the peak level is too long and may lead to an inaccurate measurement.
B. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and two hours before the next administration – Waiting two hours for both peak and trough levels is too late for effective monitoring.
C. Thirty minutes into the administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next administration – The sample drawn mid-infusion does not represent peak levels, making this method ineffective.

Key takeaway:

Proper timing of vancomycin peak and trough monitoring ensures therapeutic drug levels while minimizing nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.

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A patient with open-angle glaucoma asks the nurse about the duration of use for the prescribed eye drops. What is the nurse’s accurate response?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with a prescription for ferrous sulfate enteric-coated tablets.To promote the best absorption of the medication, what information should the nurse include in the discharge instructions?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client is receiving intravenous vancomycin, and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine the serum level of the drug. Which collection times would provide the best determination of these levels?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Explanation:

Why the other options are incorrect:

Key takeaway:

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