A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with stage 4 cancer who has a prescription for a subcutaneous morphine sulfate patch for pain.
The client is short of breath and difficult to arouse.
During a head-to-toe assessment, the nurse finds four patches on the client’s body. What should be the nurse’s first action?

Administer a narcotic reversal drug.

Apply an oxygen face mask.

Remove the morphine patches.

Monitor the client’s blood pressure.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A rationale

Administering a narcotic reversal drug is not the first action the nurse should take. While it’s true that the client’s symptoms could be due to opioid overdose, the nurse should first confirm the cause of the symptoms. In this case, the nurse finds four patches on the client’s body, which is unusual and could lead to an overdose. Therefore, the first action should be to remove the patches to prevent further absorption of the drug.

Choice B rationale

Applying an oxygen face mask might be necessary if the client is having difficulty breathing. However, this would not address the underlying problem if the client is experiencing an overdose from the morphine sulfate patches. The nurse should first remove the patches to stop further drug absorption.

Choice C rationale

The nurse finds four patches on the client’s body. This is unusual and could lead to an overdose. Therefore, the nurse’s first action should be to remove the patches to prevent further absorption of the drug. After removing the patches, the nurse can assess the client’s condition and provide further interventions as needed.

Choice D rationale

Monitoring the client’s blood pressure is an important nursing intervention, but it should not be the first action in this situation. The nurse has already found a potential cause for the client’s symptoms (i.e., the four morphine sulfate patches). Therefore, the first action should be to address this problem by removing the patches.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is not typically a side effect of piperacillin-tazobactam. While it’s important to monitor a client’s blood pressure during any infusion, hypertension alone would not typically be a reason to stop the infusion of piperacillin-tazobactam.

Choice B rationale

A scratchy throat could be a sign of an allergic reaction to piperacillin-tazobactam. Allergic reactions to medications can range from mild to severe, and can include symptoms such as hives, difficulty breathing, and swelling in the face or throat. If a client reports a scratchy throat shortly after starting an infusion of piperacillin-tazobactam, it would be prudent for the nurse to stop the infusion and assess the client for other signs of an allergic reaction.

Choice C rationale

Bradycardia, or a slow heart rate, is not typically a side effect of piperacillin-tazobactam. While it’s important to monitor a client’s heart rate during any infusion, bradycardia alone would not typically be a reason to stop the infusion of piperacillin-tazobactam.

Choice D rationale

Pupillary constriction is not typically a side effect of piperacillin-tazobactam. While it’s important to monitor a client’s pupils during any infusion, pupillary constriction alone would not typically be a reason to stop the infusion of piperacillin-tazobactam.

A. Administer a second dose of naloxone. B. Prepare to assist with chest tube insertion. C. Determine Glasgow Coma Scale score. D. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). .

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The correct answer is choice D: Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

Choice D rationale: The patient's respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation of 75%, and unresponsiveness indicate severe respiratory depression, which requires immediate intervention. CPR is the priority action to maintain circulation and oxygenation while awaiting further interventions.

Choice A rationale: Administering a second dose of naloxone may be necessary to counteract the effects of opioids. However, in this case, the patient's condition has severely deteriorated, and immediate resuscitation efforts take priority.

Choice B rationale: Preparing to assist with chest tube insertion is not the appropriate action in this situation. Chest tube insertion is used to treat conditions like pneumothorax or pleural effusion, which are not indicated in this scenario.

Choice C rationale: Determining the Glasgow Coma Scale score is useful for assessing the patient's level of consciousness but should not be the first action in this case. Ensuring adequate circulation and oxygenation through CPR is the priority.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse initiates an infusion of piperacillin-tazobactam for a client with a urinary tract infection. Five minutes into the infusion, the client reports not feeling well.Which client manifestation should the nurse identify as a reason to stop the infusion?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse administers naloxone to a patient with opioid-induced respiratory depression. An hour later, the nurse finds the patient has a respiratory rate of 4 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation of 75%, and is unresponsive. What action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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