A postpartum complication a client is at risk for is deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following is a factor strongly associated with this postpartum complication?
Cesarean birth.
Rheumatoid Arthritis.
Hypotension.
Uterine atony.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Cesarean birth is a factor strongly associated with postpartum deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) After a cesarean section, the risk of developing DVT increases due to reduced mobility and potential trauma to blood vessels during the surgery. Decreased mobility can lead to blood stasis, increasing the risk of clot formation.
Choice B rationale:
Rheumatoid arthritis (Choice B) is not directly associated with an increased risk of postpartum DVT. Other autoimmune disorders, such as antiphospholipid syndrome, may be associated with a higher risk of DVT, but rheumatoid arthritis itself is not a known risk factor.
Choice C rationale:
Hypotension (Choice C) is not directly linked to an increased risk of postpartum DVT. However, hypotension can be associated with other complications and should be managed appropriately.
Choice D rationale:
Uterine atony (Choice D) is excessive bleeding following childbirth due to the uterus not contracting adequately. While it is a postpartum complication, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of DVT.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Edema is not an expected finding of uncomplicated gestational hypertension. While some degree of edema can be common during pregnancy, it is not specifically related to gestational hypertension.
Choice B rationale:
A blood pressure reading of 155/92 is an expected finding in a client with uncomplicated gestational hypertension. Gestational hypertension is defined as systolic blood pressure ≥140 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure ≥90 mmHg after 20 weeks of pregnancy, without the presence of proteinuria or other organ dysfunction.
Choice C rationale:
Proteinuria is an expected finding in gestational hypertension. It is an important diagnostic criterion for preeclampsia, which is a severe form of gestational hypertension.
Choice D rationale:
Hepatic dysfunction is not an expected finding in uncomplicated gestational hypertension. Hepatic dysfunction would indicate more severe complications such as HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelet count), which is a medical emergency.
Choice E rationale:
Blood pressure usually returns to normal after pregnancy in women with uncomplicated gestational hypertension. However, it is essential to monitor the client closely postpartum to ensure blood pressure normalization.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic and is not used to counteract the effects of meperidine in the newborn. Both fentanyl and meperidine are opioids, and using fentanyl in this context would not counteract the effects of meperidine.
Choice B rationale:
Flumazenil is a medication used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines, not opioids like meperidine. It is not appropriate for countering the effects of meperidine in the newborn.
Choice C rationale:
Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that can reverse the effects of opioids like meperidine. When a newborn has been exposed to opioids during labor, such as meperidine given to the mother, there is a risk of respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone can quickly reverse this effect and restore normal respiratory function.
Choice D rationale:
Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat side effects of antipsychotic drugs and is not relevant in this situation. It would not counteract the effects of meperidine on the newborn.
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