A preceptor discussing stroke with a new nurse on the unit would tell the new nurse that which cardiac dysrhythmia is associated with cardiogenic embolic strokes?
Bundle branch block
Ventricular tachycardia
Supraventricular tachycardia
Atrial fibrillation
The Correct Answer is D
Reasoning:
Choice A reason: Bundle branch block affects ventricular conduction but does not typically cause emboli. It may lead to dyssynchrony but lacks the stasis in the atria that promotes clot formation, making it less associated with cardiogenic embolic strokes compared to atrial fibrillation’s thrombus-forming mechanism.
Choice B reason: Ventricular tachycardia is a life-threatening arrhythmia affecting the ventricles, causing hemodynamic instability but not typically embolic strokes. It does not promote atrial stasis or clot formation, which are necessary for cardiogenic emboli to travel to the brain, unlike atrial fibrillation.
Choice C reason: Supraventricular tachycardia causes rapid heart rates above the ventricles but is less likely to form atrial clots than atrial fibrillation. It does not typically cause the prolonged stasis needed for thrombus formation, making it less associated with embolic strokes in the brain.
Choice D reason: Atrial fibrillation is strongly associated with cardiogenic embolic strokes. It causes irregular atrial contractions, leading to blood stasis in the atria, promoting thrombus formation. These clots can embolize to the brain, causing ischemic stroke, making it a key risk factor requiring anticoagulation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Reasoning:
Choice A reason: Aspiration precautions are important in head injury to prevent pneumonia, particularly if consciousness is impaired, but they are not specific seizure prophylactic measures. Seizures require anticonvulsants to prevent neuronal hyperexcitability, making aspiration precautions a secondary concern unrelated to seizure prevention.
Choice B reason: Anticonvulsant medications, initiated early (e.g., day two), are standard for seizure prophylaxis in head injury. Trauma can cause cortical irritation, increasing seizure risk. Drugs like levetiracetam stabilize neuronal activity, preventing seizures, which could worsen brain injury or ICP, making this the primary measure.
Choice C reason: Intubation and ventilator support are used for severe head injuries with compromised airway or breathing but are not seizure prophylaxis. Seizures are managed with anticonvulsants, as mechanical ventilation does not address neuronal excitability, making this inappropriate for seizure prevention.
Choice D reason: Antiemetic medications manage nausea but are not seizure prophylactic measures. While vomiting may occur post-head injury, it does not prevent seizures, which result from cortical irritability. Anticonvulsants directly target seizure risk, making antiemetics irrelevant to this specific intervention goal.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Reasoning:
Choice A reason: Dilute urine is not expected in SIADH, as excessive ADH promotes water reabsorption in the kidneys’ collecting ducts, leading to concentrated urine with high osmolality. Dilute urine is characteristic of diabetes insipidus, where ADH deficiency causes excessive water loss, producing large volumes of dilute urine.
Choice B reason: Hypernatremia is not a manifestation of SIADH. Excessive ADH causes water retention, diluting serum sodium and leading to hyponatremia. Hypernatremia occurs in conditions like diabetes insipidus, where water loss concentrates sodium, opposite to the fluid overload seen in SIADH.
Choice C reason: Increased serum osmolality is not typical in SIADH. Water retention due to excessive ADH dilutes serum sodium and osmol Jon the same paragraph, and the correct answer with detailed scientific rationales for each choice. The text will be in regular font, with no bold, and each question will be clearly numbered with two lines skipped after the number and one line after the question. I will avoid in-text citations and ensure scientific explanations are detailed and at least 58 words long.
Choice D reason: Concentrated urine is a hallmark of SIADH due to excessive ADH, which promotes water reabsorption in the renal collecting ducts, reducing urine volume and increasing its osmolality. This contrasts with diabetes insipidus, where dilute urine is produced, making concentrated urine a key diagnostic feature of SIADH.
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