A primary intervention strategy for coping with a maturational crisis includes:

Marriage counseling for a couple contemplating divorce.

Recognizing symptoms of relapse for those with chronic mental illness.

Assisting parents to select a group home for their troubled teen.

Childbirth classes for a couple having their first child.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Marriage counseling addresses situational crises like divorce, not maturational crises, which involve developmental transitions. It targets interpersonal conflict, not the normative stress of life stages, missing the neuroadaptive challenges of maturational growth like childbirth.

Choice B reason: Recognizing relapse symptoms is relevant for chronic mental illness, not maturational crises. Relapse involves dopamine or serotonin dysregulation, not the normative developmental stress of life transitions, making this intervention unrelated to maturational coping needs.

Choice C reason: Selecting a group home addresses a situational crisis for a troubled teen, not a maturational one. Maturational crises involve normative developmental stages, like childbirth, requiring anticipatory guidance, not reactive interventions for behavioral issues.

Choice D reason: Childbirth classes prepare couples for the maturational crisis of parenthood, a normative life transition. They reduce stress by enhancing prefrontal cortex-mediated coping skills and serotonin-driven emotional regulation, supporting adaptation to developmental changes, making this the best intervention.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Persistent depressive disorder responds better to SSRIs or psychotherapy, as MAOIs’ risk of hypertensive crises due to monoamine buildup limits their use. MAOIs increase serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine, but are reserved for severe cases due to complex neural interactions.

Choice B reason: MAOIs like phenelzine are used for treatment-resistant depression, where SSRIs fail, by increasing serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine via enzyme inhibition. This broad monoamine enhancement alters prefrontal-amygdala circuits, addressing severe depressive symptoms unresponsive to other treatments, making it the primary indication.

Choice C reason: Moderate depression is typically treated with SSRIs or SNRIs, which have safer profiles. MAOIs’ risk of serotonin and norepinephrine overload, causing hypertensive crises, makes them unsuitable for moderate cases, where less aggressive neural modulation is effective.

Choice D reason: Mild depression is managed with psychotherapy or SSRIs, not MAOIs, which risk serious side effects like tyramine-induced hypertensive crises due to excessive monoamine levels. MAOIs are reserved for severe, resistant cases, not mild neural dysregulation.

A. A score over 8 requires immediate hospitalization. B. Give the patient a follow-up appointment. Hospitalization may be needed soon. C. That action would seem to be appropriate based on the score. D. I think you should strongly consider a benzodiazepine for this patient.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: A SAD PERSONS score over 8 indicates high suicide risk, driven by serotonin dysregulation and amygdala hyperactivity, necessitating hospitalization to prevent self-harm. Immediate intervention stabilizes neurochemical imbalances and ensures safety, addressing the acute risk effectively.

Choice B reason: A follow-up appointment is inadequate for a score of 10, indicating high suicide risk. Serotonin and dopamine dysregulation heighten impulsivity, and delaying hospitalization risks self-harm, as outpatient care cannot address acute amygdala-driven suicidal ideation effectively.

Choice C reason: Sending the patient home with a score of 10 is unsafe, as high suicide risk involves serotonin deficits and amygdala hyperactivity. This disregards the need for immediate intervention to stabilize neurochemical imbalances and ensure safety, making it inappropriate.

Choice D reason: Benzodiazepines address anxiety but not suicide risk directly. A score of 10 indicates severe serotonin dysregulation and amygdala-driven impulsivity, requiring hospitalization, not anxiolytics, which may mask symptoms without addressing the underlying neurochemical suicide risk.

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A primary intervention strategy for coping with a maturational crisis includes:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are used to treat which of the following?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse states, "I evaluated a new patient using the modified SAD PERSONS scale and got a score of 10. Should I send the patient home?" Select the best reply.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client is brought to the emergency department after exhibiting vital sign instability, diaphoresis, shivering, incoordination, hyperreflexia, hyperpyrexia, and diarrhea. The client is taking paroxetine (Paxil) for depression. Which condition should the nurse most likely suspect?

A client is suspected to have dissociative identity disorder. Which characteristic does the nurse identify that the disturbed personal identity is most likely related to?

A troubled adolescent pulled out a gun in a school cafeteria, fatally shot three people, and injured many others. Hundreds of parents come to the school after hearing news reports. After police arrest the shooter, which action should occur next?

A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder has rapidly changing mood cycles. The health care provider prescribes an anticonvulsant medication. Which drug should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?

Which patient meets the criteria for hospice services?

A nurse is preparing to administer methylprednisolone 10 mg IV bolus. The amount available from the pharmacy is 40 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

A client has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. One clinical symptom of this diagnosis is what?

A client who has attempted suicide has an underlying diagnosis of depression. Based on the biochemical function that is most associated with suicidal behavior, the nurse anticipates which medication classification will be ordered for the client?