A primigravida at 40 weeks of gestation is having uterine contractions every 1.5 to 2 minutes and states that they are very painful. Her cervix is dilated 2 cm and has not changed in 3 hours. The woman is crying and wants an epidural. What is the likely status of this woman's labor?
She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction.
She is experiencing a normal latent stage.
She is experiencing precipitous labor.
She is exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction, because she has frequent and painful contractions that are ineffective in dilating the cervix. Hypertonic uterine dysfunction occurs when the uterus contracts too often and too forcefully, resulting in poor oxygenation and fetal distress. The woman may need tocolytic therapy, pain relief, and hydration.
Choice B reason: She is not experiencing a normal latent stage, because her contractions are too frequent and too painful for this phase of labor. The normal latent stage is characterized by irregular and mild contractions that gradually increase in frequency and intensity, and cervical dilation from 0 to 3 cm.
Choice C reason: She is not experiencing precipitous labor, because her labor is not progressing rapidly. Precipitous labor is defined as labor that lasts less than 3 hours from the onset of contractions to the delivery of the baby. It is associated with cervical dilation of more than 5 cm per hour.
Choice D reason: She is not exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction, because her contractions are not weak or infrequent. Hypotonic uterine dysfunction occurs when the uterus contracts too weakly or too rarely, resulting in prolonged labor and increased risk of infection. The woman may need oxytocin augmentation, amniotomy, or cesarean section.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Primigravida in spontaneous labor with preterm twins is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as preterm births are associated with lower blood loss and smaller placentas. However, this client may have other complications, such as preterm labor, premature rupture of membranes, or fetal growth restriction.
Choice B reason: Primiparous woman (G 2, P 1-0-0-1) being prepared for an emergency cesarean birth for fetal distress is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as cesarean births are associated with higher blood loss and larger incisions. However, this client may have other complications, such as infection, wound dehiscence, or thromboembolism.
Choice C reason: Multiparous woman (G 3, P 2-0-0-2) with an 8-hour labor is at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as multiparity and rapid labor are both risk factors for uterine atony, which is the most common cause of early postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract and retract after delivery, and can cause excessive bleeding and hypovolemic shock.
Choice D reason: Woman with severe preeclampsia on magnesium sulfate whose labor is being induced is not at the greatest risk for early postpartum hemorrhage, as preeclampsia and magnesium sulfate are both risk factors for late postpartum hemorrhage, which occurs after 24 hours of delivery. However, this client may have other complications, such as eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, or placental abruption.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Assisting the client with transferring to the gynecology unit is not the first action that the nurse should take, as it does not address the client's emotional needs or preferences. The nurse should first assess the client's coping and grieving process, and provide support and comfort.
Choice B reason: Offering the mother private time with the newborn is the first action that the nurse should take, as it can facilitate the bonding and closure process, and help the client express her feelings and emotions. The nurse should respect the client's wishes and cultural beliefs regarding the viewing and holding of the stillborn infant, and provide a quiet and private environment.
Choice C reason: Administering alprazolam 0.5 mg PO is not the first action that the nurse should take, as it is a pharmacological intervention that requires a prescription and an assessment of the client's condition and history. The nurse should first use nonpharmacological methods, such as active listening, therapeutic communication, and counseling, to help the client cope and manage her anxiety and grief.
Choice D reason: Contacting the health care facility's clergy is not the first action that the nurse should take, as it may not be appropriate or desired by the client. The nurse should first ask the client if she wants any spiritual or religious support, and respect her decision and beliefs.
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