A primigravida at 40 weeks of gestation is having uterine contractions every 1.5 to 2 minutes and states that they are very painful. Her cervix is dilated 2 cm and has not changed in 3 hours. The woman is crying and wants an epidural. What is the likely status of this woman's labor?
She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction.
She is experiencing a normal latent stage.
She is experiencing precipitous labor.
She is exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction, because she has frequent and painful contractions that are ineffective in dilating the cervix. Hypertonic uterine dysfunction occurs when the uterus contracts too often and too forcefully, resulting in poor oxygenation and fetal distress. The woman may need tocolytic therapy, pain relief, and hydration.
Choice B reason: She is not experiencing a normal latent stage, because her contractions are too frequent and too painful for this phase of labor. The normal latent stage is characterized by irregular and mild contractions that gradually increase in frequency and intensity, and cervical dilation from 0 to 3 cm.
Choice C reason: She is not experiencing precipitous labor, because her labor is not progressing rapidly. Precipitous labor is defined as labor that lasts less than 3 hours from the onset of contractions to the delivery of the baby. It is associated with cervical dilation of more than 5 cm per hour.
Choice D reason: She is not exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction, because her contractions are not weak or infrequent. Hypotonic uterine dysfunction occurs when the uterus contracts too weakly or too rarely, resulting in prolonged labor and increased risk of infection. The woman may need oxytocin augmentation, amniotomy, or cesarean section.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Preeclampsia is not the correct answer, as it is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that causes high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. Preeclampsia can be a risk factor for abruptio placentae, which is a premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, but it is not a complication of it. Preeclampsia does not cause petechiae or bleeding around the IV access site, but rather headaches, blurred vision, or epigastric pain.
Choice B reason: Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy is not the correct answer, as it is a rare and fatal condition that occurs when the amniotic fluid enters the maternal circulation and causes an allergic reaction. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy can occur as a complication of abruptio placentae, but it is not indicated by the petechiae or bleeding around the IV access site. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy would cause respiratory distress, hypotension, or cardiac arrest.
Choice C reason: Puerperal infection is not the correct answer, as it is a bacterial infection of the reproductive tract that occurs after childbirth. Puerperal infection can occur as a complication of abruptio placentae, but it is not indicated by the petechiae or bleeding around the IV access site. Puerperal infection would cause fever, foul-smelling lochia, or pelvic pain.
Choice D reason: Disseminated intravascular coagulation is the correct answer, as it is a coagulation disorder that causes widespread clotting and bleeding in the body. Disseminated intravascular coagulation can occur as a complication of abruptio placentae, and it is indicated by the petechiae and bleeding around the IV access site. Disseminated intravascular coagulation would also cause a low platelet count, a prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), and a low fibrinogen level.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Prostaglandin E2 is not an appropriate medication for the client, because it is a uterotonic agent that stimulates uterine contractions and cervical ripening. Prostaglandin E2 is used to induce labor, not to stop it.
Choice B reason: Methylergonovine is not an appropriate medication for the client, because it is a uterotonic agent that causes sustained uterine contractions and vasoconstriction. Methylergonovine is used to prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage, not to stop preterm labor.
Choice C reason: Terbutaline is an appropriate medication for the client, because it is a tocolytic agent that relaxes the uterine smooth muscle and inhibits contractions. Terbutaline is used to delay preterm labor and prolong pregnancy.
Choice D reason: Oxytocin is not an appropriate medication for the client, because it is a uterotonic agent that stimulates uterine contractions and milk ejection. Oxytocin is used to augment labor, not to stop it.
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