A nurse in a clinic is assessing a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and has been diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following is not a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum?

Molar pregnancy

Previous history of hyperemesis gravidarum

Oligohydramnios

Multiple fetal gestation

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Molar pregnancy is a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it is a gestational trophoblastic disease that causes an abnormal growth of the placenta and the production of high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), which is a hormone that stimulates nausea and vomiting. Molar pregnancy can cause severe and persistent hyperemesis gravidarum, as well as vaginal bleeding, uterine enlargement, and preeclampsia.

Choice B reason: Previous history of hyperemesis gravidarum is a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it suggests a genetic or physiological predisposition to the condition. Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that occurs in pregnancy, and it can cause dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, weight loss, and malnutrition. Hyperemesis gravidarum can recur in subsequent pregnancies, especially if the mother has the same partner, the same sex of the fetus, or a short interval between pregnancies.

Choice C reason: Oligohydramnios is not a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it is a low level of amniotic fluid that surrounds the fetus. Oligohydramnios is not related to hyperemesis gravidarum, and it is not a cause or a consequence of it. Oligohydramnios can affect the fetal development and the delivery, as it can cause fetal growth restriction, cord compression, or meconium aspiration.

Choice D reason: Multiple fetal gestation is a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum, as it is a condition where the mother is carrying more than one fetus. Multiple fetal gestation can cause higher levels of hCG, estrogen, and progesterone, which are hormones that stimulate nausea and vomiting. Multiple fetal gestation can cause more severe and prolonged hyperemesis gravidarum, as well as preterm labor, anemia, and preeclampsia.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Respiratory rate is the priority nursing assessment for this client, because magnesium sulfate can cause respiratory depression, which is a life-threatening complication. The nurse should monitor the client's respiratory rate closely, and discontinue the infusion if it falls below 12 breaths per minute.

Choice B reason: Bowel sounds is not a priority nursing assessment for this client, because magnesium sulfate does not have a significant effect on the gastrointestinal system. The nurse should assess the client's bowel sounds as part of the routine physical examination, but it is not a critical parameter for this medication.

Choice C reason: Time of last food intake is not a priority nursing assessment for this client, because magnesium sulfate does not interact with food or affect the absorption of nutrients. The nurse should inquire about the client's dietary intake and preferences, but it is not a vital factor for this medication.

Choice D reason: Temperature is not a priority nursing assessment for this client, because magnesium sulfate does not cause fever or hypothermia. The nurse should measure the client's temperature as part of the vital signs, but it is not a key indicator for this medication.

A. "It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood." B. "It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn." C. "It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood." D. "It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood."

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: This statement is incorrect, as it describes the direct Coombs test, not the indirect Coombs test. The direct Coombs test is performed on the newborn's blood, and it detects the presence of maternal antibodies that have attached to the newborn's red blood cells. The direct Coombs test can help diagnose hemolytic disease of the newborn, which is a condition where the maternal antibodies destroy the newborn's red blood cells, causing anemia and jaundice.

Choice B reason: This statement is incorrect, as it is not the purpose of the indirect Coombs test, but rather a possible complication of hemolytic disease of the newborn. Kernicterus is a severe form of jaundice that occurs when the bilirubin level in the blood is very high, and it can cause brain damage, deafness, or death. Kernicterus can be prevented by treating the jaundice with phototherapy or exchange transfusion.

Choice C reason: This statement is correct, as it describes the indirect Coombs test, which is performed on the mother's blood, and it detects the presence of Rh-positive antibodies that have formed in response to the exposure to the Rh-positive blood of the newborn. The indirect Coombs test can help identify the risk of hemolytic disease of the newborn, and guide the administration of Rh immunoglobulin, which is a medication that prevents the formation of Rh-positive antibodies.

Choice D reason: This statement is incorrect, as it is not possible for the newborn to have Rh-negative antibodies, since the newborn has Rh-positive blood. Rh-negative antibodies are produced by Rh-negative individuals who have been exposed to Rh-positive blood, such as Rh-negative mothers who have Rh-positive newborns. Rh-negative antibodies can cross the placenta and attack the Rh-positive red blood cells of the newborn, causing hemolytic disease of the newborn.

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A nurse in a clinic is assessing a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation and has been diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following is not a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate IV to a client who is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following is the priority nursing assessment for this client?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is 6 hr postpartum. The client is Rh-negative and her newborn is Rh-positive. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered by the provider. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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