A steady trickle of bright red blood from the vagina in the presence of a firm fundus suggests:
Infection of the uterus.
Uterine atony.
Perineal hematoma.
Lacerations of the genital tract.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Infection of the uterus typically presents with fever, foul-smelling lochia, and uterine tenderness, not bright red vaginal bleeding with a firm fundus. Firm fundus decreases the likelihood of retained products causing infection.
Choice B rationale
Uterine atony causes excessive vaginal bleeding due to the uterus's inability to contract effectively, but it doesn't apply here since the fundus is firm, indicating adequate uterine tone.
Choice C rationale
Perineal hematoma results from blood vessel damage during delivery. It causes a tense, painful mass and vaginal or perineal swelling, not steady, bright red bleeding with a firm fundus.
Choice D rationale
Lacerations of the genital tract result in bright red bleeding despite a firm fundus, as the bleeding originates from tears in the vaginal or perineal tissues rather than uterine atony.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Gastric problems later in life are not an immediate concern for infants with myelomeningocele, as they often arise secondary to neurological impairments or medications but do not pose immediate life-threatening risks at birth.
Choice B rationale
Respiratory depression in infants with myelomeningocele is rare unless coexisting brainstem anomalies or complications from anesthesia are present, which are typically managed during medical interventions.
Choice C rationale
Decreased cardiac output is not a primary risk in infants with myelomeningocele unless there is a coexisting cardiac anomaly, which is not a routine feature of this congenital condition.
Choice D rationale
Infection is a critical immediate risk due to the open neural tube defect in myelomeningocele, which exposes the spinal cord and meninges to environmental pathogens, increasing the risk of meningitis or systemic infection.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Hypoxia may contribute to tachypnea and distress, but it is unlikely the primary cause, as baseline fetal heart rate of 180 BPM indicates infection-related stress rather than isolated oxygen deprivation.
Choice B rationale
Respiratory distress syndrome predominantly affects preterm infants due to surfactant deficiency. At 37 weeks’ gestation, surfactant levels should be adequate, making this an unlikely cause of the newborn’s tachypnea and pallor.
Choice C rationale
Prolonged rupture of membranes increases the risk of neonatal sepsis. Signs such as tachypnea, pallor, and elevated fetal heart rate with marked variability suggest systemic infection requiring immediate evaluation and treatment.
Choice D rationale
Phrenic nerve injury typically causes diaphragmatic paralysis, leading to asymmetric chest movement and respiratory distress. However, it does not explain the systemic signs like pallor or elevated heart rate, making it an unlikely cause.
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