Which of the following statements most accurately describes postpartum depression (PPD)?
PPD will disappear on its own without outside help.
PPD is the baby blues” that includes a visit with a counselor or psychologist.
PPD is more common among older Caucasian women.
PPD is distinguished by irritability, severe anxiety, and panic attacks.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Postpartum depression does not resolve without intervention. It requires medical or psychological treatment to address underlying hormonal, emotional, and environmental factors contributing to the condition.
Choice B rationale
Postpartum depression is distinct from baby blues, which are transient and resolve without treatment. PPD involves more severe symptoms requiring medical or psychological intervention for effective management.
Choice C rationale
Postpartum depression is not limited to older Caucasian women. It affects women of all ages, ethnicities, and socioeconomic backgrounds, influenced by hormonal, genetic, and environmental factors.
Choice D rationale
Postpartum depression is characterized by severe anxiety, irritability, and panic attacks, distinguishing it from baby blues. These symptoms interfere with daily functioning and require medical or psychological treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Narcan (naloxone) is contraindicated as it can precipitate acute withdrawal symptoms in neonates exposed to opioids in utero, leading to seizures and severe distress due to sudden opioid receptor blockade.
Choice B rationale
Phenobarbital is used to manage neonatal abstinence syndrome by reducing central nervous system hyperexcitability and seizures. It is not contraindicated as it provides symptomatic relief for withdrawal symptoms.
Choice C rationale
Methadone is used to treat neonatal abstinence syndrome by stabilizing opioid levels and preventing withdrawal symptoms. It is not contraindicated and helps manage symptoms effectively in opioid-exposed neonates.
Choice D rationale
Morphine is a first-line treatment for neonatal abstinence syndrome, reducing withdrawal symptoms by mimicking the effects of opioids. It is not contraindicated and is commonly used in neonatal care.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Tight swaddling does not address hypoglycemia but may increase the infant’s stress. Hypoglycemia requires immediate correction through feeding or IV glucose, as low glucose levels can impair neonatal neurologic function.
Choice B rationale
Feeding provides immediate glucose replenishment, correcting hypoglycemia, which manifests as trembling. Rechecking glucose ensures effective correction. Normal neonatal glucose levels are 45–65 g/dL, with intervention needed below 40 g/dL.
Choice C rationale
Monitoring urinary output is insufficient for managing neonatal hypoglycemia. Trembling indicates an acute need for glucose, requiring prompt feeding or IV glucose rather than passive observation of output.
Choice D rationale
Immediate NICU transfer is unnecessary unless hypoglycemia remains uncorrected or other complications arise. Prompt feeding and glucose recheck are adequate to stabilize the neonate in most cases.
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