A woman who is 8 months pregnant comments that she has noticed a change in posture and is having lower back pain.
The nurse tells her that during pregnancy women have a posture shift to compensate for the enlarging fetus. This shift in posture is known as:
Ankylosis.
Scoliosis.
Kyphosis.
Lordosis.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Ankylosis refers to the stiffening and immobility of a joint due to fusion of the bones. This condition is typically caused by chronic inflammation or injury, leading to bone remodeling and eventual bridging of the joint space. It is a pathological process that restricts movement and is not a normal physiological adaptation during pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
Scoliosis is an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, often accompanied by rotation of the vertebrae. It can be congenital, neuromuscular, or idiopathic. This spinal deformity deviates from the normal sagittal plane alignment and is not a typical physiological compensatory mechanism for the gravid uterus.
Choice C rationale
Kyphosis is an excessive outward curvature of the thoracic spine, resulting in a hunched back appearance. While some degree of thoracic kyphosis is normal, an exaggerated curve can be pathological. It does not represent the compensatory postural change seen in pregnant women, which primarily involves the lumbar region.
Choice D rationale
Lordosis is an increased inward curvature of the lumbar spine. During pregnancy, as the uterus enlarges anteriorly, the woman's center of gravity shifts forward. To maintain balance and prevent falling, the abdominal muscles stretch and the lumbar spine accentuates its inward curve, which is known as lordosis, a physiological adaptation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cranial nerve I (olfactory) is responsible for smell, and cranial nerve II (optic) is responsible for vision. Cranial nerve V (trigeminal) is involved in facial sensation and mastication. These nerves are not primarily involved in controlling the extrinsic eye muscles responsible for eye movement.
Choice B rationale
Cranial nerve III (oculomotor) innervates the superior, inferior, and medial recti, and the inferior oblique muscles, and controls eyelid elevation. Cranial nerve IV (trochlear) innervates the superior oblique muscle. Cranial nerve VI (abducens) innervates the lateral rectus muscle. Together, these three cranial nerves precisely coordinate all six extraocular muscles for conjugate gaze.
Choice C rationale
While cranial nerve III (oculomotor) is correctly identified, cranial nerve V (trigeminal) and cranial nerve XI (accessory) are not primarily involved in eye movement. Cranial nerve V is involved in facial sensation and mastication, and cranial nerve XI innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles for head and shoulder movement.
Choice D rationale
Cranial nerve II (optic) is responsible for vision, transmitting visual information from the retina to the brain. Cranial nerve V (trigeminal) is involved in facial sensation and chewing. Cranial nerve VI (abducens) is correctly identified as innervating the lateral rectus, but the other two nerves listed do not control the majority of eye movements.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The abdomen, specifically 2 inches from the umbilicus, is a common site for subcutaneous injections due to the presence of ample adipose tissue, which allows for slower absorption of medications like insulin or heparin. Intradermal injections require a site with a thin epidermis and minimal subcutaneous tissue to ensure the medication remains within the dermal layer, making the abdomen unsuitable.
Choice B rationale
The anterior thigh is a common site for intramuscular injections, particularly in infants, due to the large muscle mass (vastus lateralis). While it can be used for subcutaneous injections, its muscularity and varying skin thickness make it less ideal for the precise shallow angle required for an intradermal injection, where the goal is to deposit the medication into the dermis.
Choice C rationale
The posterior upper arm, specifically the triceps area, is frequently utilized for subcutaneous injections, such as insulin or certain vaccines, because it offers sufficient subcutaneous tissue. However, similar to the anterior thigh, its anatomical characteristics with thicker skin and subcutaneous fat layers make it less optimal for the very superficial intradermal injection technique.
Choice D rationale
The upper chest, particularly below the clavicle and above the breasts, is an appropriate site for intradermal injections. This area, along with the inner forearm and upper back, has a thin epidermis and less subcutaneous tissue, which facilitates the proper placement of the medication within the dermis, allowing for the formation of a visible wheal, a key indicator of a successful intradermal injection.
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