A young client desires to know her risk of developing breast carcinoma. She has a positive family history of breast carcinoma. The nurse would suggest that she should undergo which diagnostic test?
DNA ploidy status
digital mammography
BRCA-1 genetic marker
fine-needle biopsy
The Correct Answer is C
A. DNA ploidy status: This test analyzes the number and structure of chromosomes within tumor cells to determine malignancy aggressiveness. It is used after cancer is diagnosed, not for assessing hereditary risk in an asymptomatic person.
B. Digital mammography: Mammography is a screening tool for detecting existing breast abnormalities or early cancer, not a genetic risk assessment. It is recommended for routine screening, typically starting at age 40 or earlier if the woman is at high risk.
C. BRCA-1 genetic marker: Testing for BRCA-1 (and BRCA-2) mutations identifies women with a hereditary predisposition to breast and ovarian cancer. A positive result indicates a significantly higher lifetime risk and guides preventive and surveillance strategies.
D. Fine-needle biopsy: This diagnostic procedure is used to evaluate an existing breast lump or suspicious lesion for malignancy. It does not identify genetic or hereditary cancer risk in asymptomatic individuals.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Genital herpes simplex: Herpes simplex virus infection presents with painful vesicular lesions on the vulva or vagina, often accompanied by burning and dysuria. It does not typically cause a thick, white discharge or intense itching.
B. Trichomoniasis: Trichomoniasis is characterized by a frothy, yellow-green discharge with a foul odor and vaginal irritation. It is caused by the Trichomonas vaginalis parasite and does not produce the thick, curd-like discharge described here.
C. Candidiasis: Vaginal candidiasis (yeast infection) is marked by a thick, white, “cottage cheese–like” discharge, intense pruritus, vulvar erythema, and dyspareunia. It results from an overgrowth of Candida albicans, often triggered by antibiotics, pregnancy, or diabetes.
D. Bacterial vaginosis: Bacterial vaginosis produces a thin, grayish-white discharge with a fishy odor and elevated vaginal pH. It is not typically associated with thick discharge or intense itching as seen in candidiasis.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","F"]
Explanation
A. Avoid or reduce painful procedures: Atraumatic care focuses on minimizing or eliminating pain whenever possible through comfort measures, distraction techniques, and appropriate pain management. This helps decrease fear and anxiety in children during medical procedures.
B. Avoid or reduce physical distress: Preventing physical stress such as discomfort, fatigue, or temperature extremes supports the child’s sense of safety and comfort. This approach helps reduce physiological and emotional trauma during hospitalization.
C. Minimize parent-child interactions: This is contrary to atraumatic care principles. Parental presence provides comfort and emotional security for the child. Family-centered involvement enhances coping and promotes healing.
D. Provide child-centered care: Atraumatic care emphasizes care that respects the child’s developmental level, preferences, and emotional needs. This individualized approach promotes trust, reduces anxiety, and fosters cooperation.
E. Minimize child control: Atraumatic care encourages giving the child as much control as appropriate, such as allowing choices when possible. Limiting control increases fear and feelings of helplessness.
F. Use core primary nursing: Consistent caregivers foster a sense of security and continuity, reducing stress and promoting therapeutic relationships. This supports the child’s emotional well-being and stability during hospitalization.
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