According to Freudian theory, a client who has alcohol use disorder and smokes to excess became fixated at which stage?
Anal
Oral
Phallic
Latent
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: The anal stage, occurring around ages 1 to 3, is associated with issues of control, orderliness, and autonomy. Fixation at this stage may result in traits such as obsessiveness or rigidity, not substance use or oral behaviors.
Choice B reason: The oral stage is the first stage in Freud’s psychosexual development (birth to 1 year). It centers on pleasure derived from oral activities such as sucking and eating. Fixation at this stage is linked to behaviors such as smoking, overeating, nail-biting, and alcohol use—making it the most appropriate answer.
Choice C reason: The phallic stage (ages 3 to 6) involves the Oedipus and Electra complexes and focuses on genital awareness. Fixation here may lead to issues with authority or sexual identity, not oral behaviors.
Choice D reason: The latent stage (ages 6 to puberty) is a period of relative calm in psychosexual development, where sexual impulses are repressed. Fixation here is not typically associated with substance use or oral behaviors.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: While encouraging autonomy is important, this response overlooks the potential danger of combining serotonergic agents. It may inadvertently reinforce unsafe behavior.
Choice B reason: Although tryptophan has been studied for its role in mood regulation, combining it with SSRIs like escitalopram increases the risk of serotonin syndrome—a potentially life-threatening condition. This response fails to address the safety concern.
Choice C reason: This response acknowledges the client’s progress while appropriately warning about the risk of serotonin syndrome. It maintains therapeutic rapport and provides necessary education about drug interactions.
Choice D reason: This response is overly critical and may damage the therapeutic relationship. It does not validate the client’s intent or provide constructive guidance.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: This question assesses paranoid ideation and is more relevant to psychotic symptoms rather than personality traits.
Choice B reason: This question targets anhedonia, a core symptom of depression, and is part of the mood assessment rather than personality.
Choice C reason: This question evaluates depersonalization and derealization, which are dissociative symptoms, not personality-related.
Choice D reason: This question directly addresses enduring patterns of thoughts, moods, and behaviors that affect interpersonal functioning, which is central to personality disorders. It is designed to elicit information about maladaptive personality traits.
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