After a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD), the client was started on epoetin. Which finding indicates that the medication has been effective?

Increase in serum hematocrit.

Increase in serum calcium.

Decrease in serum creatinine levels.

Decrease in blood pressure.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: An increase in serum hematocrit indicates that epoetin has been effective. Epoetin, also known as erythropoietin, is a medication used to stimulate the production of red blood cells. In patients with chronic kidney disease, the kidneys may not produce enough natural erythropoietin, leading to anemia. By administering epoetin, the goal is to increase red blood cell production, which is reflected in higher hematocrit levels (the proportion of red blood cells in the blood).

Choice B reason: An increase in serum calcium is not related to the effectiveness of epoetin. Serum calcium levels are regulated by different mechanisms, including parathyroid hormone and vitamin D, and are not directly influenced by epoetin administration.

Choice C reason: A decrease in serum creatinine levels would indicate improved kidney function, but this is not the expected outcome of epoetin therapy. Epoetin specifically targets red blood cell production and does not have a direct impact on kidney function or creatinine levels.

Choice D reason: A decrease in blood pressure is also not an expected indicator of epoetin effectiveness. While managing blood pressure is important in chronic kidney disease, epoetin's primary role is to address anemia by stimulating red blood cell production. Blood pressure regulation involves other medications and interventions.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Warfarin is an anticoagulant commonly used in patients with atrial fibrillation to prevent the formation of blood clots. Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of stroke due to the potential for blood clots forming in the heart and traveling to the brain. Warfarin helps reduce this risk by thinning the blood and preventing clot formation.

Choice B reason: Atropine is used to treat bradycardia (slow heart rate) and is not typically used for patients with atrial fibrillation. Its primary function is to increase the heart rate by blocking the vagus nerve's effects on the heart. In the context of atrial fibrillation, anticoagulation is more crucial to prevent complications like stroke.

Choice C reason: Dobutamine is an inotropic agent used to increase cardiac output in patients with heart failure or cardiogenic shock. It is not used for managing atrial fibrillation. Dobutamine works by stimulating the heart to pump more effectively but does not address the risks associated with atrial fibrillation, such as blood clot formation.

Choice D reason: Magnesium sulfate is used to treat various conditions, including torsades de pointes (a type of abnormal heart rhythm) and severe asthma attacks. It is not typically used for atrial fibrillation. The focus in atrial fibrillation management is on controlling the heart rate or rhythm and preventing thromboembolic complications with anticoagulation therapy.

A. Headaches can occur due to the vasoconstriction effect of the medication. B. I can give you some Morphine to help with that headache. C. I will notify the physician immediately. D. This is a normal side effect of Nitroglycerin as it dilates your body's vessels.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: The statement "Headaches can occur due to the vasoconstriction effect of the medication" is incorrect. Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation, not vasoconstriction. Vasodilation increases blood flow, which can lead to headaches as a common side effect.

Choice B reason: Offering Morphine to manage the headache is not the most appropriate initial response. While Morphine can relieve pain, it's essential to educate the patient about the common side effects of Nitroglycerin and provide reassurance. Morphine use should be carefully considered and is typically reserved for more severe pain management.

Choice C reason: Notifying the physician immediately is not necessary in this scenario, as a headache is a known and common side effect of Nitroglycerin. It's more appropriate to educate the patient about the side effects and provide reassurance. Only if the headache is severe and unrelieved by other measures should the physician be notified.

Choice D reason: Explaining that the headache is a normal side effect of Nitroglycerin, which dilates blood vessels, is the most appropriate response. This helps to reassure the patient and provides an understanding of why the headache is occurring. Nitroglycerin works by dilating blood vessels to improve blood flow and reduce angina symptoms, and headaches are a common side effect due to this vasodilation.

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After a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD), the client was started on epoetin. Which finding indicates that the medication has been effective?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a patient with atrial fibrillation. In addition to an antidysrhythmic, what medication does the nurse plan to administer?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A patient with angina is receiving Nitroglycerin and begins to complain of a severe headache. What is the most appropriate response from the nurse?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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