What does the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe when a post-kidney transplant client develops oliguria, elevated temperature of 37.8°C, increased blood pressure, and signs of fluid retention 12 days after the surgery?
Immediate return to hemodialysis.
Immediate removal of the transplanted kidney.
Antibiotic therapy.
Increased doses of immunosuppressive drugs.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: Immediate return to hemodialysis is not typically the first line of treatment for these symptoms. Hemodialysis is a renal replacement therapy used when the kidneys are not functioning adequately. While it may be necessary in some cases, the symptoms described suggest an infection rather than complete kidney failure.
Choice B reason: Immediate removal of the transplanted kidney is a drastic measure and is not the first step in managing these symptoms. This action would be considered only if there is clear evidence of irreversible graft failure or severe complications that cannot be managed with other treatments.
Choice C reason: Antibiotic therapy is
The correct answer. The symptoms of oliguria (low urine output), elevated temperature, increased blood pressure, and signs of fluid retention suggest an infection, which is a common complication after kidney transplantation due to the immunosuppressive medications that lower the immune system's ability to fight infections. Treating the infection with antibiotics is crucial to prevent further complications and preserve the function of the transplanted kidney.
Choice D reason: Increased doses of immunosuppressive drugs are not appropriate in this situation. While immunosuppressive drugs are essential to prevent organ rejection, increasing their dosage in the presence of an infection could further compromise the immune system and exacerbate the infection. The priority is to address the infection first.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Administering a vasopressor is not appropriate for low afterload. Vasopressors are used to increase blood pressure by causing vasoconstriction, which increases afterload. However, the administration of a vasopressor for low afterload is contradictory because the goal for low afterload would be to reduce the strain on the heart, not to increase it.
Choice B reason: Administering a vasodilator for low afterload is not correct. Vasodilators decrease afterload by causing the blood vessels to widen, reducing the resistance the heart has to pump against. Administering a vasodilator to treat low afterload is inappropriate because it would further lower afterload, potentially leading to inadequate perfusion and worsening cardiac output.
Choice C reason: Administering diuretics for low right atrial (RA) pressure is inappropriate. Diuretics help to remove excess fluid from the body, reducing blood volume and venous pressure. However, if a patient has low right atrial pressure, reducing blood volume further with diuretics could exacerbate the issue, leading to decreased cardiac output and poor perfusion.
Choice D reason: Administering a fluid bolus is the correct intervention for low preload. Preload refers to the volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole. If preload is low, administering fluids increases blood volume, which enhances ventricular filling and improves cardiac output. This intervention helps to stabilize hemodynamics and improve overall perfusion.
Choice E reason: Administering a diuretic or vasodilator is the appropriate intervention for high preload. High preload indicates an excess of blood volume returning to the heart, which can strain the cardiac muscle and reduce efficiency. Diuretics help remove excess fluid, while vasodilators decrease venous return and reduce the volume of blood the heart has to handle, thus optimizing cardiac function and output.
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Auscultating for irregular heart tones can provide useful information about the heart’s rhythm and potential arrhythmias. However, it is not the most specific or definitive assessment for diagnosing a myocardial infarction (MI).
Choice B reason: Assessing for ST elevations on continuous telemetry and 12-lead EKG is critical in diagnosing a myocardial infarction. ST-segment elevation is a key indicator of an acute MI, specifically indicating myocardial injury. Continuous telemetry and 12-lead EKG provide real-time and detailed views of the heart's electrical activity, helping to identify ischemic changes.
Choice C reason: Assessing for elevated Troponin levels is essential because Troponins are cardiac biomarkers that increase significantly when there is damage to the heart muscle, such as during an MI. Elevated Troponin levels are highly specific and sensitive indicators of myocardial infarction, making this assessment crucial.
Choice D reason: Assessing for low magnesium levels is not directly related to diagnosing a myocardial infarction. While magnesium levels are important for overall cardiac function, they do not specifically indicate an acute MI.
Choice E reason: Assessing the client's blood pressure is an important part of a comprehensive assessment and can provide information about the patient's hemodynamic status. However, it is not specific to diagnosing a myocardial infarction.
Choice F reason: Assessing if the pain radiates to the left arm is an important symptom of a myocardial infarction. However, while it supports the suspicion of an MI, it is not as definitive as ST elevation on an EKG or elevated Troponin levels.
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