After completing post anesthesia recovery assessments, the registered nurse (RN) asks the practical nurse (PN) to transfer four clients, each two hours post-birth, to the postpartum unit. Which client should the PN ask the RN to reassess prior to transfer?

A primigravida whose perineal pain has worsened one hour after being medicated.

A multigravida whose peri-pad is 1/4 saturated with lochia rubra after one hour.

A multigravida complaining of strong afterbirth pains when breastfeeding.

A primigravida who passed a small clot when she sat up on the edge of the bed.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

This client should be reassessed by the RN prior to transfer, as worsening perineal pain may indicate a hematoma, infection, or inadequate pain management. The RN should inspect the perineum, check the vital signs, and evaluate the eﬀectiveness of the medication.

The other options are not correct because:

B. A multigravida whose peri-pad is 1/4 saturated with lochia rubra after one hour does not need to be reassessed by the RN, as this is a normal finding for a client two hours post-birth. Lochia rubra is a red-colored vaginal discharge that contains blood and debris from the placental site, and it usually lasts for 3 to 4 days after delivery. A peri-pad that is 1/4 saturated after one hour is within the expected range of blood loss.

C. A multigravida complaining of strong afterbirth pains when breastfeeding does not need to be reassessed by the RN, as this is a normal finding for a client two hours post-birth. Afterbirth pains are cramps caused by uterine contractions that help shrink the uterus and prevent bleeding. They are more common and intense in multiparous women and during breastfeeding, as oxytocin is released and stimulates contractions.

D. A primigravida who passed a small clot when she sat up on the edge of the bed does not need to be reassessed by the RN, as this is a normal finding for a client two hours post-birth. Small clots may form in the uterus or vagina due to pooling of blood during rest or anesthesia, and they are usually expelled when changing position or ambulating. As long as the clot is smaller than a plum and there is no excessive bleeding or pain, it is not a cause for concern.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Incorrect- Liver enzymes are important for assessing liver function, but they are not the primary concern when a client with chronic kidney disease is feeling increasingly tired. Epoetin alfa injections are used to stimulate red blood cell production, so the nurse should review a laboratory value related to anemia.
B) Correct- Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates the production of red blood cells and is often used to treat anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. A complete blood count (CBC) would provide information about red blood cell levels, hemoglobin, and hematocrit, which are essential for assessing the effectiveness of the treatment.
C) Incorrect- Serum electrolytes are important for assessing overall kidney function and electrolyte balance, but the primary concern here is the client's increasing fatigue. Reviewing a value related to anemia and red blood cell production would be more appropriate.
D) Incorrect- Platelet count is important for assessing blood clotting function, but it's not directly related to the client's increasing fatigue. Anemia-related laboratory values should be the focus.

A. Reapply a sterile non-adhesive dressing. B. Limit visitors to immediate family only. C. Administer prescribed antibiotics. D. Request a nutrition consult.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A) Incorrect- reapplying a sterile non-adhesive dressing is not enough to address the infection.

The nurse should also clean the wound, apply topical antimicrobial agents, and change the dressing regularly.
B) Incorrect- limiting visitors to immediate family only is not a sufficient infection control measure. The nurse should also use standard precautions, such as wearing gloves, gowns, masks,
and eye protection, and educate the visitors about hand hygiene and proper disposal of contaminated items.
C) Correct- Administering prescribed antibiotics is the most important action because it can help treat the infection and prevent it from spreading to other parts of the body or to other people. MRSA is resistant to many common antibiotics, so it is essential to follow the prescription and monitor the client's response.
D) Incorrect- requesting a nutrition consult is not a priority action. While nutrition is important for wound healing, it does not directly affect the infection. The nurse should first administer antibiotics and then assess the client's nutritional status and needs.

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After completing post anesthesia recovery assessments, the registered nurse (RN) asks the practical nurse (PN) to transfer four clients, each two hours post-birth, to the postpartum unit. Which client should the PN ask the RN to reassess prior to transfer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with chronic kidney disease reports to the nurse of feeling increasingly tired. The client receives injections for epoetin alfa three times a week. Which laboratory value should the nurse review?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

While changing the dressing of a client who is immobile, the nurse notices the boundary of the wound has increased. Given there is a positive methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), which is the most important action for the nurse to take?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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