The nurse is performing a functional assessment on an older client who lost five pounds (2.27 Kg) of weight since the last visit 12 weeks ago, and who reports a decrease in energy and appetite. Which action should the nurse include during the assessment?
Request to have the client lie as still as possible for the assessment.
Ask the client how often episodes of sundowning are experienced.
Question the client about the frequency of falls in recent months.
Assist the client with clarifying values about end-of-life care
The Correct Answer is C
A) Incorrect - Requesting the client to lie still may be relevant for certain assessments, but it is not specific to the situation described in the question.
B) Incorrect - Inquiring about episodes of sundowning is more relevant for clients with cognitive impairment and is not directly related to the client's weight loss and decreased energy and appetite.
C) Correct - Questioning the client about the frequency of falls is important, as falls can contribute to weight loss, decreased energy, and appetite changes in older adults.
D) Incorrect - Assisting the client with clarifying values about end-of-life care is a valuable nursing intervention but is not the priority in this assessment scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
A) Correct - Clear beef broth is appropriate for a postoperative full-liquid diet, as it is a clear liquid and meets the dietary restrictions.
B) Correct - Vegetable juice can be included in a postoperative full liquid diet, as long as it is free of solid particles.
C) Incorrect - Canned fruit cocktails may contain solid pieces of fruit, which are not suitable for a full-liquid diet.
D) Correct - Vanilla frozen yogurt is a suitable option for a postoperative full-liquid diet, as it is in a liquid state when consumed.
E) Incorrect - Creamy peanut butter is not appropriate for a full-liquid diet, as it is a solid food and does not meet the diet's requirements.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect - The APTT value being two times the control value indicates that the client's anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range. There is no need to increase the warfarin dose.
B) Correct - With the APTT value within the target range and the PT and INR values also normal, the nurse should continue the same dose of warfarin and withhold the heparin.
C) Incorrect - Decreasing the heparin dose is not indicated, as the client's APTT is already within the therapeutic range.
D) Incorrect - Increasing the heparin dose and decreasing the warfarin dose is not necessary, as the client's anticoagulation levels are appropriate.
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