After delivering a healthy baby boy with epidural anesthesia, a woman on the after-birth unit complains of a severe headache. The nurse should anticipate which actions in the patient's plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

Frequent monitoring of vital signs

Assisting with a blood patch procedure

Correct Administration of oral analgesics

Keeping the head of bed elevated at all times

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : A,B,C

A. Frequent monitoring of vital signs. A post-dural puncture headache (PDPH) can occur after epidural anesthesia due to leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Monitoring vital signs, particularly blood pressure and heart rate, helps assess for hypotension, fluid balance, and overall neurological status.

B. Assisting with a blood patch procedure. An epidural blood patch is the most effective treatment for a severe post-dural puncture headache. This procedure involves injecting the patient’s own blood into the epidural space to seal the CSF leak and relieve symptoms. The nurse should prepare for the procedure and educate the patient about it.

C. Administration of oral analgesics. Oral analgesics, such as acetaminophen or ibuprofen, are used to relieve mild to moderate headache symptoms. However, they may not be fully effective for a severe PDPH and are often used as supportive therapy along with other interventions.

D. Keeping the head of bed elevated at all times. Lying flat, rather than elevating the head of the bed, is actually recommended to help reduce CSF leakage and alleviate headache symptoms. Keeping the head elevated may worsen the headache by increasing CSF pressure changes.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Call for a STAT magnesium level. While obtaining a magnesium level is important to confirm magnesium toxicity, the priority action is to stop or reduce the infusion immediately to prevent further toxicity and respiratory depression.

B. Do nothing, this is the expected action of magnesium. Absent deep tendon reflexes, lethargy, and respiratory depression (RR 9) are signs of magnesium toxicity, not expected therapeutic effects. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent worsening respiratory and cardiac complications.

C. Prepare to administer hydralazine. Hydralazine is used to treat hypertension in preeclampsia, but this patient’s blood pressure is not critically high, and the primary concern is magnesium toxicity, not hypertension. Administering hydralazine would not address the immediate life-threatening issue.

D. Decrease or Discontinue the magnesium sulfate infusion. The first action in magnesium toxicity is to stop or reduce the infusion to prevent further accumulation. If symptoms worsen, calcium gluconate, the antidote for magnesium toxicity, may be administered to reverse its effects, especially if respiratory depression progresses.

A. The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm B. Irregular, mild uterine contractions are occurring every 15-30 minutes C. Estriol is not found in maternal saliva D. Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretions

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm. Cervical changes, including effacement and dilation, are the most definitive signs of preterm labor. Uterine contractions alone do not confirm preterm labor unless they result in cervical dilation, indicating that labor is progressing.

B. Irregular, mild uterine contractions are occurring every 15-30 minutes. Irregular contractions, known as Braxton Hicks contractions, can be common in pregnancy and do not necessarily indicate preterm labor. True preterm labor involves regular contractions that lead to cervical changes.

C. Estriol is not found in maternal saliva. The absence of estriol in maternal saliva does not confirm or rule out preterm labor. Salivary estriol testing is not a widely used or reliable diagnostic tool for determining the onset of preterm labor.

D. Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretion. Fetal fibronectin (fFN) is a protein found in vaginal secretions between 22-34 weeks of pregnancy and can indicate a risk of preterm labor, but its presence alone does not confirm that labor is actively occurring. A positive fFN test means the patient may be at increased risk for preterm labor, but cervical changes remain the best indicator of actual labor.

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After delivering a healthy baby boy with epidural anesthesia, a woman on the after-birth unit complains of a severe headache. The nurse should anticipate which actions in the patient's plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A woman at 26 weeks of gestation is being assessed to determine whether she is experiencing preterm labor. Which finding is most indicative that preterm labor is occurring?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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