After initiating a steroid nebulizer treatment for a client with asthma in respiratory distress, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
Monitor pulse oximetry every 2 hours.
Teach proper use of a rescue inhaler.
Elevate the head of bed to 90 degrees.
Determine exposure to asthmatic triggers.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because monitoring pulse oximetry every 2 hours is not a sufficient or timely intervention for the nurse to implement. Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of measuring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in the blood. Normal oxygen saturation is 95% to 100%, while hypoxemia is less than 90%. However, pulse oximetry may not reflect the severity of respiratory distress or the effectiveness of nebulizer treatment in a client with asthma. Moreover, monitoring pulse oximetry every 2 hours is too infrequent for a client who is in acute respiratory distress and needs more frequent assessment and intervention.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because teaching proper use of a rescue inhaler is not a priority or relevant intervention for the nurse to implement. A rescue inhaler is a type of short-acting bronchodilator that can be used to relieve acute asthma symptoms by relaxing the smooth muscles of the airways and improving airflow. However, teaching proper use of a rescue inhaler is not an urgent action for a client who is already receiving nebulizer treatment, which delivers a higher dose of medication directly to the lungs. Moreover, teaching proper use of a rescue inhaler is not appropriate for a client who is in respiratory distress and may not be able to focus or retain information.
Choice C reason: This is correct because elevating the head of bed to 90 degrees is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement. Elevating the head of bed to 90 degrees can help improve breathing and oxygenation by reducing pressure on the diaphragm and chest wall, increasing lung expansion and ventilation, and facilitating expectoration of mucus. This can enhance the effects of nebulizer treatment and reduce respiratory distress in a client with asthma.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because determining exposure to asthmatic triggers is not an immediate or helpful intervention for the nurse to implement. Asthmatic triggers are substances or factors that can cause or worsen asthma symptoms by inducing inflammation or constriction of the airways. Examples of asthmatic triggers include allergens, irritants, infections, exercise, stress, or weather changes. However, determining exposure to asthmatic triggers is not a priority action for a client who is in respiratory distress and needs more urgent interventions to improve breathing and oxygenation. Moreover, determining exposure to asthmatic triggers may not change the management or outcome of an acute asthma attack that has already occurred.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"A"},"D":{"answers":"A"},"E":{"answers":"B"},"F":{"answers":"B"}}
Explanation
a) Denies cramps, weakness, or nausea
This finding indicates that the actions taken were effective in relieving the patient's symptoms of fatigue, weakness, muscle cramps, and nausea. These symptoms may have been caused by electrolyte imbalances, dehydration, or infection related to her ESRD and missed dialysis sessions.
b) BP 116/68 mm Hg, HR 75 bpm
This finding indicates that the actions taken were effective in lowering the patient's blood pressure and heart rate. The patient had a history of HTN and CAD and presented with elevated BP and HR in the ED. The orders for EKG, cardiac monitor, chest X-ray, and echocardiogram may have helped to assess and manage her cardiac status. The patient may have also received antihypertensive medications or fluids as part of her treatment.
c) Potassium level 3.6 mEq/L (3.6 mmol/L)
This finding indicates that the actions taken were effective in normalizing the patient's potassium level. The patient had ESRD and missed dialysis sessions, which could have resulted in hyperkalemia or hypokalemia. The orders for basic metabolic panel and blood cultures may have helped to monitor and correct her electrolyte levels. The patient may have also received potassium supplements or binders as part of her treatment.
d) Verbalizes commitment to dialysis appointments
This finding indicates that the actions taken were effective in educating and motivating the patient to adhere to her dialysis schedule. The patient had ESRD and missed dialysis sessions, which could have worsened her condition and increased her risk of complications. The orders for CT scan of abdomen and echocardiogram may have helped to evaluate her renal function and cardiac function. The patient may have also received counseling or support from the health care team as part of her treatment.
e) Client states that she will need to resume her Lisinopril to control blood pressure
This finding indicates that the actions taken were ineffective in teaching the patient about her medication regimen. The patient had a history of HTN and CAD and was prescribed Lisinopril as an antihypertensive medication. However, Lisinopril is contraindicated in patients with ESRD as it can cause hyperkalemia or worsen renal function. The patient should be informed about the potential risks of taking Lisinopril and advised to consult with her nephrologist or primary care provider before resuming it.
f) Client is eager to add dark green vegetables and potatoes to her diet
This finding indicates that the actions taken were ineffective in educating the patient about her dietary restrictions. The patient had ESRD and required hemodialysis three times a week. She should follow a renal diet that limits the intake of potassium, phosphorus, sodium, and fluid. Dark green vegetables and potatoes are high in potassium and phosphorus and should be avoided or consumed in moderation by patients with ESRD. The patient should be provided with a list of foods that are suitable for her condition and referred to a dietitian for further guidance.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because the humoral immune response involves B cells that produce antibodies against specific antigens. However, AIDS affects the cellular immune response, which involves T cells that activate other immune cells and directly kill infected cells.
Choice B reason: This is correct because AIDS is caused by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which infects and destroys CD4+ T cells, also known as helper T cells. These cells are essential for initiating and regulating both humoral and cellular immunity. Without enough CD4+ T cells, the body cannot mount an effective response against pathogens, especially opportunistic infections that take advantage of a weakened immune system.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because bone marrow suppression of white blood cells is not a direct consequence of AIDS. However, some drugs used to treat AIDS, such as zidovudine, may cause bone marrow suppression as a side effect.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents does not cause AIDS. However, people with AIDS are more susceptible to infections from various sources due to their impaired immune system.
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